Biblicist
Full Gospel believer
- Mar 27, 2011
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That might be true but it gives clear indications a couple were baptized and if 2 were then you can safely assume the others were at one point as well.
In John 1 it records John the Baptist speaking to "two of his disciples" about Jesus. NO WAY were those 2 disciples of John that became disciples of Jesus not baptized.
Why must the scripture mention all things before people accept them?
The scriptures do not say Paul spoke in tongues when he received the Holy Spirit yet most in this forum accept that as fact, why? The scriptures only state the scales came off his eyes and he could see. Nothing about Paul speaking in tongues until he admits it in his letter to the Corinthians.
"Why"! For many it simply becomes a great method of "escape" where we can then pick and choose what we think is relevant; it's one of the oldest tricks in the book - though to be honest, most (if not all of us) probably try and use this card from time to time.
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