DavidPT
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- Sep 26, 2016
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And your evidence that the terms Lord and Yahweh are not synonymous is...?
Instead of straining at gnats and splitting hairs to obfuscate our readers away from the meat of the discussion... why not tell us what you THINK Isaiah 19 means, since you insist it was NOT referring to the then contemporary Judgment of God upon Egypt.
Please cite sources.
Tak all the time you need.
What I tend to think to be a possible, thus likely connection is the following. The following two words are found together in only these two passages below----fierce king.
Isaiah 19:4 And the Egyptians will I give over into the hand of a cruel lord; and a fierce king shall rule over them, saith the Lord, the LORD of hosts.
Daniel 8:23 And in the latter time of their kingdom, when the transgressors are come to the full, a king of fierce countenance , and understanding dark sentences, shall stand up.
And if so, this places the fulfillment of Isaiah 19:4 taking place during the time of the fulfilling of Daniel 8:23. And who do I take the king of fierce countenance to be meaning in Daniel 8:23? The future AC.
But if no connection here, can you provide something showing that the following has already been fulfilled in past history? Not meaning an opinion though, actual proof instead.
Isaiah 19:24 In that day shall Israel be the third with Egypt and with Assyria, even a blessing in the midst of the land:
25 Whom the LORD of hosts shall bless, saying, Blessed be Egypt my people, and Assyria the work of my hands, and Israel mine inheritance.
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