• Starting today August 7th, 2024, in order to post in the Married Couples, Courting Couples, or Singles forums, you will not be allowed to post if you have your Marital status designated as private. Announcements will be made in the respective forums as well but please note that if yours is currently listed as Private, you will need to submit a ticket in the Support Area to have yours changed.

the Olivet Discourse understood

RandyPNW

Well-Known Member
Jun 8, 2021
3,541
805
Pacific NW, USA
✟166,437.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
Daniel is not about Antiochus. Jesus said they'd see the Abomination of Desolation spoken by Daniel in the future.
Disqualifying beliefs that it was a past event.
There are two AoDs mentioned in Daniel, one in Dan 9.27 and the other in Dan 11.31 and Dan 12.11 (Dan 12.11 is a recap of Dan 11.31). Antiochus 4 is mentioned in Dan 8. and in Dan 11.21-45 and Dan 12.11.

The AoD in Dan 9.27 refers to the "people of the prince to come" who will desolate "the city and the sanctuary," meaning an army producing a military devastation. Jesus described this in Luke 21 as Jerusalem surrounded by an army leading to the desolation of the city and the Temple. Jesus was obviously describing the AoD of Dan 9.27 and not the AoD that was attached to Antiochus 4 in Dan 11.31.
 
Upvote 0

Jamdoc

Watching and Praying Always
Oct 22, 2019
8,328
2,622
44
Helena
✟268,004.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Single
There are two AoDs mentioned in Daniel, one in Dan 9.27 and the other in Dan 11.31 and Dan 12.11 (Dan 12.11 is a recap of Dan 11.31). Antiochus 4 is mentioned in Dan 8. and in Dan 11.21-45 and Dan 12.11.

The AoD in Dan 9.27 refers to the "people of the prince to come" who will desolate "the city and the sanctuary," meaning an army producing a military devastation. Jesus described this in Luke 21 as Jerusalem surrounded by an army leading to the desolation of the city and the Temple. Jesus was obviously describing the AoD of Dan 9.27 and not the AoD that was attached to Antiochus 4 in Dan 11.31.
The Abomination of Desolation is the same event. Jesus didn't specify "which one" because it is the same. It's identified the same way, that it involves the ending of sacrifices in the temple.

Daniel 8 is not Historic, Gabriel says it's the time of the end.

Once you see that it is NOT historic, that the historic "fulfillments" contain inaccuracies and don't line up.. you'll be able to take your blinders off and watch as Jesus commanded.

But if you keep the "this already happened in the past" interpretation, you are literally going into Jesus' second coming blind, because you have all the signs and events happening thousands of years ago, useless to the generation that will see Jesus return.
 
  • Like
Reactions: tailgator
Upvote 0

RandyPNW

Well-Known Member
Jun 8, 2021
3,541
805
Pacific NW, USA
✟166,437.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
The Abomination of Desolation is the same event. Jesus didn't specify "which one" because it is the same. It's identified the same way, that it involves the ending of sacrifices in the temple.

Daniel 8 is not Historic, Gabriel says it's the time of the end.
Time of the end of what? The end of a dynasty? The end of a period of terror? The end of the age? Words and phrases don't have a static meaning--they require context.

Nearly all Bible commentators that I've read have Dan 8 as a reference to the ancient kingdoms just beyond Daniel's time--not the time of the end of the age. Are you acting exclusively as your own commentary, or can you cite a source for your belief?
Once you see that it is NOT historic, that the historic "fulfillments" contain inaccuracies and don't line up.. you'll be able to take your blinders off and watch as Jesus commanded.

But if you keep the "this already happened in the past" interpretation, you are literally going into Jesus' second coming blind, because you have all the signs and events happening thousands of years ago, useless to the generation that will see Jesus return.
It isn't blindness to learn from past events as the Bible interprets them. We do have signs of future prophecies. For example, the rise of Antichrist will be seen as a 10 nation confederation under a man of sin.
 
Upvote 0

Jamdoc

Watching and Praying Always
Oct 22, 2019
8,328
2,622
44
Helena
✟268,004.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Single
Time of the end of what? The end of a dynasty? The end of a period of terror? The end of the age? Words and phrases don't have a static meaning--they require context.
The last indignation is what Gabriel referred to it as, it is the end of the age as Jesus referred to it.
Nearly all Bible commentators that I've read have Dan 8 as a reference to the ancient kingdoms just beyond Daniel's time--not the time of the end of the age. Are you acting exclusively as your own commentary, or can you cite a source for your belief?
as I keep pointing out, people reading it in history were reading a sealed book. Therefore past interpretations can basically be thrown out. The historical interpretations don't even fit with documented history. Alexander III of Macedonia was the 23rd king, Daniel 8 says the king is the first king.

But the source? Gabriel's explanation from the bible itself

Daniel 8
16 And I heard a man's voice between the banks of Ulai, which called, and said, Gabriel, make this man to understand the vision.
17 So he came near where I stood: and when he came, I was afraid, and fell upon my face: but he said unto me, Understand, O son of man: for at the time of the end shall be the vision.
Seems crystal clear to me, that Gabriel just said the vision of the ram and the goat is an end time vision.

18 Now as he was speaking with me, I was in a deep sleep on my face toward the ground: but he touched me, and set me upright.
19 And he said, Behold, I will make thee know what shall be in the last end of the indignation: for at the time appointed the end shall be.
What Gabriel's about to explain is what will happen in the last end of the indignation.

I don't think I need another source, unless it's to discredit past sources and commentaries claiming this is a past event and pointing out the historical inaccuracies. Which again, Daniel 11 has that empire broken up NOT ACCORDING TO THE KING'S DOMINION.
It is broken up by an outside force, and new rulers appointed from the outside. Alexander's Empire was divided among his generals, people that followed Alexander, according to his dominion.

Persia also had way more than 5 kings before being conquered by Alexander. Daniel 11 mentions from Darius' first year there'd be 3 more kings, then a 4th. You're left with a few possible ways of reconciling this:
1. It's actually talking about Cyrus not Darius and thus the 5th king mentioned is Xerxes I and it wasn't talking about the conquest of Persia just the start of the wars between Greece and Persia then skips ahead to Persia's conquest several kings later during the reign of Darius III
2. It's Darius II and so Daniel lived about 180 years
3. Or if it's about Darius I which still makes Daniel about 100 years old and then the number of kings doesn't add up.
4. It's talking about Persia in the end times having 4 kings then being conquered.

The 3 historical interpretations all have historical inaccuracies, on top of Gabriel saying the vision was about the end times.

It isn't blindness to learn from past events as the Bible interprets them. We do have signs of future prophecies. For example, the rise of Antichrist will be seen as a 10 nation confederation under a man of sin.
It's blindness when the historical interpretation has historical inaccuracies and ignores an invaluable resource for finding out about what will happen in the end of the age.
 
  • Like
Reactions: Richard T
Upvote 0

tailgator

Well-Known Member
Jun 23, 2024
924
93
61
Christian
✟33,510.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
The last indignation is what Gabriel referred to it as, it is the end of the age as Jesus referred to it.

as I keep pointing out, people reading it in history were reading a sealed book. Therefore past interpretations can basically be thrown out. The historical interpretations don't even fit with documented history. Alexander III of Macedonia was the 23rd king, Daniel 8 says the king is the first king.

But the source? Gabriel's explanation from the bible itself

Daniel 8

Seems crystal clear to me, that Gabriel just said the vision of the ram and the goat is an end time vision.


What Gabriel's about to explain is what will happen in the last end of the indignation.

I don't think I need another source, unless it's to discredit past sources and commentaries claiming this is a past event and pointing out the historical inaccuracies. Which again, Daniel 11 has that empire broken up NOT ACCORDING TO THE KING'S DOMINION.
It is broken up by an outside force, and new rulers appointed from the outside. Alexander's Empire was divided among his generals, people that followed Alexander, according to his dominion.

Persia also had way more than 5 kings before being conquered by Alexander. Daniel 11 mentions from Darius' first year there'd be 3 more kings, then a 4th. You're left with a few possible ways of reconciling this:
1. It's actually talking about Cyrus not Darius and thus the 5th king mentioned is Xerxes I and it wasn't talking about the conquest of Persia just the start of the wars between Greece and Persia then skips ahead to Persia's conquest several kings later during the reign of Darius III
2. It's Darius II and so Daniel lived about 180 years
3. Or if it's about Darius I which still makes Daniel about 100 years old and then the number of kings doesn't add up.
4. It's talking about Persia in the end times having 4 kings then being conquered.

The 3 historical interpretations all have historical inaccuracies, on top of Gabriel saying the vision was about the end times.


It's blindness when the historical interpretation has historical inaccuracies and ignores an invaluable resource for finding out about what will happen in the end of the age.
I saw a kingdom divided in a video .I saw so much as the little horne come up.last.He was diverse from.the first and appeared stouter than his fellows.
Enjoy

 
Upvote 0

RandyPNW

Well-Known Member
Jun 8, 2021
3,541
805
Pacific NW, USA
✟166,437.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
The last indignation is what Gabriel referred to it as, it is the end of the age as Jesus referred to it.
Gabriel did not interpret the "last indignation" as "the end of the age Jesus referred to." You are doing that.
as I keep pointing out, people reading it in history were reading a sealed book. Therefore past interpretations can basically be thrown out.
So you're saying that all who came before *you* were basically kept out of the loop until you came along? ;)
The historical interpretations don't even fit with documented history. Alexander III of Macedonia was the 23rd king, Daniel 8 says the king is the first king.
So you're going to correct the Bible? The Bible mentions the "1st king" in its designated *prophetic succession,* meaning that it lines up with the 4 empires mentioned in Dan 2 and 7.
But the source? Gabriel's explanation from the bible itself

Daniel 8

Seems crystal clear to me, that Gabriel just said the vision of the ram and the goat is an end time vision.
No, Gabriel interpreted the ram to be Persia, and the goat to be a Greek general.

Dan 8.20 The two-horned ram that you saw represents the kings of Media and Persia. 21 The shaggy goat is the king of Greece, and the large horn between its eyes is the first king.
Which again, Daniel 11 has that empire broken up NOT ACCORDING TO THE KING'S DOMINION.
It is broken up by an outside force, and new rulers appointed from the outside. Alexander's Empire was divided among his generals, people that followed Alexander, according to his dominion.
Dan 11.4 After he has arisen, his empire will be broken up and parceled out toward the four winds of heaven. It will not go to his descendants, nor will it have the power he exercised, because his empire will be uprooted and given to others.

Bible Hub
The reference is, undoubtedly, to the sudden death of Alexander; and the sense is, that his empire would not "gradually" diminish and decay, but that some event would occur, the effect of which would be to rend it into four parts.
His kingdom shall be broken - To wit, by his death. The language is such as is properly applicable to this, and indeed implies this, for it is said that it would not be "to his posterity" - an event which might be naturally expected to occur; or, in other words, the allusion to his posterity is such language as would be employed on the supposition that the reference here is to his death.

And shall be divided toward the four winds of heaven - Into four parts. For the remarkable fulfillment of this prediction, see the notes at Daniel 8:8.

And not to his posterity - See also the notes at Daniel 8:8.

Nor according to his dominion which he ruled - This was literally true of the division of the empire. No one of his successors ever obtained as wide a dominion as he did himself.

Persia also had way more than 5 kings before being conquered by Alexander.
A "prophetic listing" might list only kings significant with respect to the prophetic program God had designed.

As to what the "time of indignation," or "time of the end" means, I would suggest the following. It might be a reference to the period that is extended beyond the Babylonian Captivity to include a continuing set of circumstances representing God's anger towards the Jewish People.

Daniel suggested that this era would be represented by 4 Gentile kingdoms, which I believe were Babylon, Medo-Persia, Greece, and Rome. And the NT era continues this period of "endtimes," or "God's wrath against the Jews," because Rome destroyed Jerusalem and the Temple, and deported many of the Jews to other parts of the world. As such, we are still in the endtimes.

Jesus confirmed this notion by suggesting that following the defeat of Jerusalem he indicated the Jewish People would undergo an age-long oppression by the Gentiles. Then, at his Coming, this oppression would be ended.

What Daniel's prophecy was suggesting is that these historical events, including the prophecies of ancient Persia and Greece, were still future events that had to perpetuate and ultimately finish God's wrath against the Jewish People. They were just future steps in the ongoing succession of steps leading to the end of God's punishment of the Jewish People.
 
Upvote 0

Jamdoc

Watching and Praying Always
Oct 22, 2019
8,328
2,622
44
Helena
✟268,004.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Single
Gabriel did not interpret the "last indignation" as "the end of the age Jesus referred to." You are doing that.
So if there's indignations past that indignation, then it's not the last one, and Gabriel also said it was the time of the end.
So you're saying that all who came before *you* were basically kept out of the loop until you came along? ;)
Not about me, but the point is, those historical interpretations get historical inaccuracies and are not in the end times, but people just accepted those interpretations because some "great theologian" interpreted that way and it became tradition.
and it has become a set of blinders.
Daniel is declared to be a sealed book. It may still be sealed, so maybe not all the details are even currently understandable.
But what is clear, is that the historical interpretations of the book, when it was definitely sealed, are all loaded with error. I pointed out several.
So you're going to correct the Bible? The Bible mentions the "1st king" in its designated *prophetic succession,* meaning that it lines up with the 4 empires mentioned in Dan 2 and 7.
Not correcting the bible, correcting historical erroneous interpretations. Where they have to kind of wiggle and jiggle to make it fit. Alexander wasn't the first King.
That's not saying Daniel 8 is wrong, that's saying people claiming Daniel 8 is about Alexander are wrong.
It's a huge difference.
No, Gabriel interpreted the ram to be Persia, and the goat to be a Greek general.
Not in the Hebrew.
In the Hebrew it's about Persia and יָוָ֑ן that is "Jawan" or Javan, which is identifying a people group descended from a son of Japheth. It got translated to "Greece" because people looked at the prophecy identified Persia, okay who conquered Persia.. Greece, okay that word means Greece now.
Dan 8.20 The two-horned ram that you saw represents the kings of Media and Persia. 21 The shaggy goat is the king of Greece, and the large horn between its eyes is the first king.

Dan 11.4 After he has arisen, his empire will be broken up and parceled out toward the four winds of heaven. It will not go to his descendants, nor will it have the power he exercised, because his empire will be uprooted and given to others.

Bible Hub
The reference is, undoubtedly, to the sudden death of Alexander; and the sense is, that his empire would not "gradually" diminish and decay, but that some event would occur, the effect of which would be to rend it into four parts.
His kingdom shall be broken - To wit, by his death. The language is such as is properly applicable to this, and indeed implies this, for it is said that it would not be "to his posterity" - an event which might be naturally expected to occur; or, in other words, the allusion to his posterity is such language as would be employed on the supposition that the reference here is to his death.

And shall be divided toward the four winds of heaven - Into four parts. For the remarkable fulfillment of this prediction, see the notes at Daniel 8:8.

And not to his posterity - See also the notes at Daniel 8:8.

Nor according to his dominion which he ruled - This was literally true of the division of the empire. No one of his successors ever obtained as wide a dominion as he did himself.


A "prophetic listing" might list only kings significant with respect to the prophetic program God had designed.

As to what the "time of indignation," or "time of the end" means, I would suggest the following. It might be a reference to the period that is extended beyond the Babylonian Captivity to include a continuing set of circumstances representing God's anger towards the Jewish People.

Daniel suggested that this era would be represented by 4 Gentile kingdoms, which I believe were Babylon, Medo-Persia, Greece, and Rome. And the NT era continues this period of "endtimes," or "God's wrath against the Jews," because Rome destroyed Jerusalem and the Temple, and deported many of the Jews to other parts of the world. As such, we are still in the endtimes.

Jesus confirmed this notion by suggesting that following the defeat of Jerusalem he indicated the Jewish People would undergo an age-long oppression by the Gentiles. Then, at his Coming, this oppression would be ended.

What Daniel's prophecy was suggesting is that these historical events, including the prophecies of ancient Persia and Greece, were still future events that had to perpetuate and ultimately finish God's wrath against the Jewish People. They were just future steps in the ongoing succession of steps leading to the end of God's punishment of the Jewish People.

Here's the thing about Daniel 7.
Daniel was disturbed by the vision, if it were a repeat of the same vision Nebuchadnezzar had, he'd understand it that way, not be confused. He did not understand it and it had to be explained to him. Furthermore, the 4th empire is described as having antichrist, and the end of the age, and gives the time, times, and half a time, measurement that is the same as the 42 month reign in Revelation.
and to be frank, the little horn is also in Daniel 8, which would by your reckoning be the 3rd kingdom not the 4th.
 
Upvote 0

RandyPNW

Well-Known Member
Jun 8, 2021
3,541
805
Pacific NW, USA
✟166,437.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
So if there's indignations past that indignation, then it's not the last one, and Gabriel also said it was the time of the end.
The "indignation" appears to be the endtimes period in which the Jewish Punishment comes to an end. They had a land and a status with God, and they lost that completely in 70 AD. This ushered in the "Great Tribulation," or the Jewish Punishment, lasting from 70 AD until the Return of Christ.

The "indignation," therefore, is God's unhappiness with the Jewish majority who reject His Son. It involves an entire age called "the endtimes," which began during the Babylonian Captivity and confused Daniel because it extended well beyond him into the future.

He did not understand how God's "Chosen People" could enter into God's Kingdom Age with all of this future destruction being predicted. The Disciples of Jesus had the same confusion when Jesus predicted the fall of the Temple, and they asked, "How does this relate to Israel's promised restoration in the Messianic Age?"
Not in the Hebrew.
In the Hebrew it's about Persia and יָוָ֑ן that is "Jawan" or Javan, which is identifying a people group descended from a son of Japheth. It got translated to "Greece" because people looked at the prophecy identified Persia, okay who conquered Persia.. Greece, okay that word means Greece now.
You think you're going to correct Bible translators and Christian scholars?
Here's the thing about Daniel 7.
Daniel was disturbed by the vision, if it were a repeat of the same vision Nebuchadnezzar had, he'd understand it that way, not be confused. He did not understand it and it had to be explained to him.
See above. Nebuchadnezzar's Dream in Dan 2 and Daniel's Dream in Dan 7 run parallel and were 2 Witnesses to confirm a prophetic blueprint for history in God's program.
Furthermore, the 4th empire is described as having antichrist, and the end of the age, and gives the time, times, and half a time, measurement that is the same as the 42 month reign in Revelation.
The Roman Empire, which was the 4th Kingdom, extends throughout the NT Age. We might call it "European Civilization" because it contains an imperial tradition that has been perpetuated throughout European history. And as Dan 7 indicated, the Empire itself fragmented into states, 10 of which will be controlled by Antichrist, the "Little Horn," when he rises.
and to be frank, the little horn is also in Daniel 8, which would by your reckoning be the 3rd kingdom not the 4th.
You're using an Interpretive Fallacy. The use of one term, "Little Horn," does not automatically apply to the same thing wherever it is used. It is context that determines the meaning.

In my view, the "Little Horn" in ch. 8 refers to Antiochus 4 because he emerged from one of the sections of ancient Greece. The "Little Horn," by contrast, in ch. 7 emerges out of the 4th Kingdom, which I believe is Rome. And he does not come out of the two major sections of the ancient Roman Empire, but rather, out of the group of 10 in Europe long after the Empire has been fragmented into many states.

"Little Horn" is a generic term that appears to refer to an individual with imperial authority, as opposed to an entire kingdom with imperial authority. It refers to an individual leader, as opposed to the State he rules over.

As such, the term alone does not refer to any one historical person, but to any imperial leader that is suggested in the context in which the word is used. In Dan 8, the term appears to refer, by the context, to Antiochus 4. In Dan 7, the term appears to refer, by the context, to the Antichrist. You are engaging in an illegitimate method of interpretation. See Selective Use of Meaning Fallacy in Common Logical or Interpretive Fallacies when Interpreting the Bible.
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0

Jamdoc

Watching and Praying Always
Oct 22, 2019
8,328
2,622
44
Helena
✟268,004.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Single
The "indignation" appears to be the endtimes period in which the Jewish Punishment comes to an end. They had a land and a status with God, and they lost that completely in 70 AD. This ushered in the "Great Tribulation," or the Jewish Punishment, lasting from 70 AD until the Return of Christ.
the Great Tribulation itself comes from Daniel 12, Jesus was referring to it almost quoting it, and is time, times, and half a time.
The "indignation," therefore, is God's unhappiness with the Jewish majority who reject His Son. It involves an entire age called "the endtimes," which began during the Babylonian Captivity and confused Daniel because it extended well beyond him into the future.

He did not understand how God's "Chosen People" could enter into God's Kingdom Age with all of this future destruction being predicted. The Disciples of Jesus had the same confusion when Jesus predicted the fall of the Temple, and they asked, "How does this relate to Israel's promised restoration in the Messianic Age?"
The end of the age was also a known concept to Daniel from previous prophets such as Isaiah. Isaiah 26 refers to the last indignation as well.
You think you're going to correct Bible translators and Christian scholars?
On this point, yes. They are also men and can also be wrong. An office and fancy titles doesn't make them better when God is concerned.

The literal word used is Jawan/Javan. It is not Greece, It is still translated Javan in Genesis. This is inconsistent to translate it to Greece when it's convenient for their interpretation. This is the Newspaper Exagesis (or really it's Eisegesis) of their day. Historical events happened, they translated words in a way to make them fit a prophecy, even though it is inconsistent and contains historical inaccuracies.

This would be like modern day people translating ΒΑΒΥΛΩΝ in Revelation 17 to New York City because Babylon as a city no longer exists nobody lives there and they think New York City fits the description. They translated according to their interpretation rather than consistently with what the text actually translates to.

It is "Jawan" or "Javan" Not Greece literally you can look up the Hebrew yourself. While I believe it is somewhere in the modern day Turkey and could tie into an Islamic Caliphate, I would not translate Javan as Turkey or the Ottoman Empire or the Caliphate. I'd leave it as Javan,
It's like people who want to claim Russia is "Rosh" in Ezekiel 38. They're trying to literally translate the bible text to fit their interpretation. Rosh is a Hebrew word that means head or root or chief, AKA something that has primacy. It's used that way almost 600 times in the bible and then for 2 instances people want to read "Russia" into it.
See above. Nebuchadnezzar's Dream in Dan 2 and Daniel's Dream in Dan 7 run parallel and were 2 Witnesses to confirm a prophetic blueprint for history in God's program.
Nebuchadnezzar's dream is about an explicit progression of empires from his time forward. Daniel 7 is an end times vision, containing the end of the age. The beasts in Daniel 7 correspond to THE beast in Revelation 13. Characteristics of the first 3 beasts of Daniel 7 are contained within the beast from the sea in Revelation 7 The beast in Revelation 13 is the 4th beast of Daniel 7. Both of those beasts wage war on the saints.
The Roman Empire, which was the 4th Kingdom, extends throughout the NT Age. We might call it "European Civilization" because it contains an imperial tradition that has been perpetuated throughout European history. And as Dan 7 indicated, the Empire itself fragmented into states, 10 of which will be controlled by Antichrist, the "Little Horn," when he rises.

You're using an Interpretive Fallacy. The use of one term, "Little Horn," does not automatically apply to the same thing wherever it is used. It is context that determines the meaning.

In my view, the "Little Horn" in ch. 8 refers to Antiochus 4 because he emerged from one of the sections of ancient Greece. The "Little Horn," by contrast, in ch. 7 emerges out of the 4th Kingdom, which I believe is Rome. And he does not come out of the two major sections of the ancient Roman Empire, but rather, out of the group of 10 in Europe long after the Empire has been fragmented into many states.

"Little Horn" is a generic term that appears to refer to an individual with imperial authority, as opposed to an entire kingdom with imperial authority. It refers to an individual leader, as opposed to the State he rules over.

As such, the term alone does not refer to any one historical person, but to any imperial leader that is suggested in the context in which the word is used. In Dan 8, the term appears to refer, by the context, to Antiochus 4. In Dan 7, the term appears to refer, by the context, to the Antichrist. You are engaging in an illegitimate method of interpretation. See Selective Use of Meaning Fallacy in Common Logical or Interpretive Fallacies when Interpreting the Bible.
I'm just going to disagree with this. All those visions are connected and are end times visions.
That is why they are sealed. They were not for Daniel's time but for the time of the end.
 
Upvote 0

tailgator

Well-Known Member
Jun 23, 2024
924
93
61
Christian
✟33,510.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
the Great Tribulation itself comes from Daniel 12, Jesus was referring to it almost quoting it, and is time, times, and half a time.

The end of the age was also a known concept to Daniel from previous prophets such as Isaiah. Isaiah 26 refers to the last indignation as well.

On this point, yes. They are also men and can also be wrong. An office and fancy titles doesn't make them better when God is concerned.

The literal word used is Jawan/Javan. It is not Greece, It is still translated Javan in Genesis. This is inconsistent to translate it to Greece when it's convenient for their interpretation. This is the Newspaper Exagesis (or really it's Eisegesis) of their day. Historical events happened, they translated words in a way to make them fit a prophecy, even though it is inconsistent and contains historical inaccuracies.

This would be like modern day people translating ΒΑΒΥΛΩΝ in Revelation 17 to New York City because Babylon as a city no longer exists nobody lives there and they think New York City fits the description. They translated according to their interpretation rather than consistently with what the text actually translates to.

It is "Jawan" or "Javan" Not Greece literally you can look up the Hebrew yourself. While I believe it is somewhere in the modern day Turkey and could tie into an Islamic Caliphate, I would not translate Javan as Turkey or the Ottoman Empire or the Caliphate. I'd leave it as Javan,
It's like people who want to claim Russia is "Rosh" in Ezekiel 38. They're trying to literally translate the bible text to fit their interpretation. Rosh is a Hebrew word that means head or root or chief, AKA something that has primacy. It's used that way almost 600 times in the bible and then for 2 instances people want to read "Russia" into it.

Nebuchadnezzar's dream is about an explicit progression of empires from his time forward. Daniel 7 is an end times vision, containing the end of the age. The beasts in Daniel 7 correspond to THE beast in Revelation 13. Characteristics of the first 3 beasts of Daniel 7 are contained within the beast from the sea in Revelation 7 The beast in Revelation 13 is the 4th beast of Daniel 7. Both of those beasts wage war on the saints.

I'm just going to disagree with this. All those visions are connected and are end times visions.
That is why they are sealed. They were not for Daniel's time but for the time of the end.
Israel got what it wanted.A beast like the other nations.

1 Samuel 8:20

Then we will be like all the other nations, with a king to lead us and to go out before us and fight our battles.”
 
Upvote 0

RandyPNW

Well-Known Member
Jun 8, 2021
3,541
805
Pacific NW, USA
✟166,437.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
the Great Tribulation itself comes from Daniel 12, Jesus was referring to it almost quoting it, and is time, times, and half a time.
Where did either Dan 12 or Jesus identify the "Great Tribulation" as 3.5 in duration? It doesn't say that.

Dan 12. 6 One of them said to the man clothed in linen, who was above the waters of the river, “How long will it be before these astonishing things are fulfilled?”

What things are fulfilled?

Dan 12.There will be a time of distress such as has not happened from the beginning of nations until then. But at that time your people—everyone whose name is found written in the book—will be delivered. 2 Multitudes who sleep in the dust of the earth will awake: some to everlasting life, others to shame and everlasting contempt. 3 Those who are wise[ will shine like the brightness of the heavens, and those who lead many to righteousness, like the stars for ever and ever.

This is mentioning several things here that are "fulfilled."
1) A time of Distress
2) Deliverance of those whose names are written in the book
3) Multitudes of departed rise from the dead, some to everlasting life and others to everlasting contempt
4) The wise shine like the stars forever

All of these things are fulfilled. So a time is given to lead to this fulfillment.

Dan 12.7 “It will be for a time, times and half a time. When the power of the holy people has been finally broken, all these things will be completed.”

This is a reference back to Dan 7.

Dan 7.25 He will speak against the Most High and oppress his holy people and try to change the set times and the laws. The holy people will be delivered into his hands for a time, times and half a time.
26 “‘But the court will sit, and his power will be taken away and completely destroyed forever. 27 Then the sovereignty, power and greatness of all the kingdoms under heaven will be handed over to the holy people of the Most High. His kingdom will be an everlasting kingdom, and all rulers will worship and obey him.’


So here's the thing we must decide. Is 3.5 years, the Reign of the Antichrist, the thing that fulfills the "time of Distress?" Or, is that just the period of time "when the power of the holy people has been finally broken?"

Well, it is both in a way. The 3.5 years bring to a climax all of the things, including the "time of Distress," that had been happening.

The "time of Distress," according to Jesus, is viewed as being from the time of the Romans in 70 AD until his Return at the end of the age, and is called a "Jewish Punishment." And here in Daniel, Michael rises up immediately after the fall of Antiochus 4 is mentioned, which corresponds with the time when Rome rises to dominate Israel.

So I must conclude that the "Great Distress," mentioned in both Dan 12 and the Olivet Discourse, refers to the entire age of Jewish Punishment. It is only at the end of this period, when Antichrist reigns for 3.5 years, that the "power of the Holy People is finally broken." That is ultimately when all of these things are completed, when the 3.5 years are over with.

In fact, the power of the Jewish People has been somewhat broken since 70 AD. It was somewhat broken even in the time of Babylon, Persia, Greece, and Rome. But it all comes to a head in the 3.5 years of Antichrist's Reign. That's when Israel's failure and oppression finally come to an end.

That's how I see it. You can determine how you wish to see it.
The end of the age was also a known concept to Daniel from previous prophets such as Isaiah. Isaiah 26 refers to the last indignation as well.
In context, the "last indignation" appears to be God's final dealings with Israel, which is, in my view, post-Babylonian Captivity. Israel stopped being an independent kingdom devoted to the Lord. The Davidic kings came to an end, particularly with the death of Jesus.
The literal word used is Jawan/Javan. It is not Greece, It is still translated Javan in Genesis. This is inconsistent to translate it to Greece when it's convenient for their interpretation. This is the Newspaper Exagesis (or really it's Eisegesis) of their day. Historical events happened, they translated words in a way to make them fit a prophecy, even though it is inconsistent and contains historical inaccuracies.
No, the translators found it perfectly legitimate to translate it as modern English-speakers would read it. I trust them well before I'd trust you. I will ask my brother about this nonetheless--he loves questions like this. Do you know upon what basis the translators did this? I didn't think so...

Barnes Notes on the Bible...
Is the king of Grecia - Represents the king of Greece. The word here rendered Grecia (יון yâvân) denotes usually and properly Ionia, the western part of Asia Minor; but this name was extended so as to embrace the whole of Greece. See Aristoph. Acharn. 504, ibique Schol.; AEschyl. Pers. 176, 561; Gesenius, Lexicon Latin Vulgate and Theodotion, here render it "the king of the Grecians," and there can be no doubt that the royal power among the Greeks is here referred to. See the notes at Daniel 8:5.
Nebuchadnezzar's dream is about an explicit progression of empires from his time forward. Daniel 7 is an end times vision, containing the end of the age. The beasts in Daniel 7 correspond to THE beast in Revelation 13. Characteristics of the first 3 beasts of Daniel 7 are contained within the beast from the sea in Revelation 7 The beast in Revelation 13 is the 4th beast of Daniel 7. Both of those beasts wage war on the saints.
Yes, Rev 13 is the 4th Beast of Dan 7. But I do find Nebuchadnezzar's Dream and Daniel's Dream parallel revelations. Naturally, seeing a human image fits Nebuchadnezzar better than 4 Beasts because he is a pagan and would not view his own kingdom and succeeding kingdoms as "beasts."

On the other hand, Daniel, being a man under the Law--a righteous man, would see these 4 kingdoms as "beasts."
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0

Jamdoc

Watching and Praying Always
Oct 22, 2019
8,328
2,622
44
Helena
✟268,004.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Single
Where did either Dan 12 or Jesus identify the "Great Tribulation" as 3.5 in duration? It doesn't say that.

Dan 12. 6 One of them said to the man clothed in linen, who was above the waters of the river, “How long will it be before these astonishing things are fulfilled?”

What things are fulfilled?

Dan 12.There will be a time of distress such as has not happened from the beginning of nations until then. But at that time your people—everyone whose name is found written in the book—will be delivered. 2 Multitudes who sleep in the dust of the earth will awake: some to everlasting life, others to shame and everlasting contempt. 3 Those who are wise[ will shine like the brightness of the heavens, and those who lead many to righteousness, like the stars for ever and ever.

This is mentioning several things here that are "fulfilled."
1) A time of Distress
2) Deliverance of those whose names are written in the book
3) Multitudes of departed rise from the dead, some to everlasting life and others to everlasting contempt
4) The wise shine like the stars forever

All of these things are fulfilled. So a time is given to lead to this fulfillment.

Dan 12.7 “It will be for a time, times and half a time. When the power of the holy people has been finally broken, all these things will be completed.”

This is a reference back to Dan 7.

Dan 7.25 He will speak against the Most High and oppress his holy people and try to change the set times and the laws. The holy people will be delivered into his hands for a time, times and half a time.
26 “‘But the court will sit, and his power will be taken away and completely destroyed forever. 27 Then the sovereignty, power and greatness of all the kingdoms under heaven will be handed over to the holy people of the Most High. His kingdom will be an everlasting kingdom, and all rulers will worship and obey him.’


So here's the thing we must decide. Is 3.5 years, the Reign of the Antichrist, the thing that fulfills the "time of Distress?" Or, is that just the period of time "when the power of the holy people has been finally broken?"

Well, it is both in a way. The 3.5 years bring to a climax all of the things, including the "time of Distress," that had been happening.

The "time of Distress," according to Jesus, is viewed as being from the time of the Romans in 70 AD until his Return at the end of the age, and is called a "Jewish Punishment." And here in Daniel, Michael rises up immediately after the fall of Antiochus 4 is mentioned, which corresponds with the time when Rome rises to dominate Israel.

So I must conclude that the "Great Distress," mentioned in both Dan 12 and the Olivet Discourse, refers to the entire age of Jewish Punishment. It is only at the end of this period, when Antichrist reigns for 3.5 years, that the "power of the Holy People is finally broken." That is ultimately when all of these things are completed, when the 3.5 years are over with.

In fact, the power of the Jewish People has been somewhat broken since 70 AD. It was somewhat broken even in the time of Babylon, Persia, Greece, and Rome. But it all comes to a head in the 3.5 years of Antichrist's Reign. That's when Israel's failure and oppression finally come to an end.

That's how I see it. You can determine how you wish to see it.

In context, the "last indignation" appears to be God's final dealings with Israel, which is, in my view, post-Babylonian Captivity. Israel stopped being an independent kingdom devoted to the Lord. The Davidic kings came to an end, particularly with the death of Jesus.

No, the translators found it perfectly legitimate to translate it as modern English-speakers would read it. I trust them well before I'd trust you. I will ask my brother about this nonetheless--he loves questions like this. Do you know upon what basis the translators did this? I didn't think so...
Then why didn't they translate it as "Greece" or "Grecia" in Genesis? They translated it as Javan. In other places of the bible namely, Ezekiel 38, they use the names of grandchildren of Noah .. still as the grandchildren of Noah, They use Gomer, Togarmah, Meshech and Tubal, etc.

The word is Javan, to make the assumption that that is "Greece" in one place and still Javan in another is very inconsistent and they are letting their interpretation get in the way of their translation.
Barnes Notes on the Bible...
Is the king of Grecia - Represents the king of Greece. The word here rendered Grecia (יון yâvân) denotes usually and properly Ionia, the western part of Asia Minor; but this name was extended so as to embrace the whole of Greece. See Aristoph. Acharn. 504, ibique Schol.; AEschyl. Pers. 176, 561; Gesenius, Lexicon Latin Vulgate and Theodotion, here render it "the king of the Grecians," and there can be no doubt that the royal power among the Greeks is here referred to. See the notes at Daniel 8:5.
2 things of note even from this commentary
1. first you can clearly see the actual word is Yavan (which is fair, J wasn't in early English even, it's a more modern thing, Jawan, Javan, Yavan, one of those keep it consistent translate don't interpret in the text) in the parenthesis. Not Greece. Greece is an interpretation, not a translation.
2. "properly Ionia, the western part of Asia Minor" That's Turkey, that is where the Javanites settled, it has been Gumby stretched to be Greece, primarily because they thought Alexander was the fulfillment.

IE, they read their interpretation into the text. They *altered* the text to fit their interpretation. A horrible thing really. They should have kept it Javan.
They could explain that they believed it was Greece in footnotes.
But the text itself should be consistently Jawan, Javan, Yavan,

Yes, Rev 13 is the 4th Beast of Dan 7. But I do find Nebuchadnezzar's Dream and Daniel's Dream parallel revelations. Naturally, seeing a human image fits Nebuchadnezzar better than 4 Beasts because he is a pagan and would not view his own kingdom and succeeding kingdoms as "beasts."
Well the beast of Rev 13 is not Rome. Rome was the 6th king in the lineup but there would be a 7th and 8th. It's the 7th and 8th that are comparable to the 4th beast of Daniel 7.
On the other hand, Daniel, being a man under the Law--a righteous man, would see these 4 kingdoms as "beasts."
and he was confused by the vision, it was not something he understood, he asked questions and asked for interpretation.
I think they are not really the same thing.

The beast in Revelation 13 is an amalgamation, a chimera, of the first 3 beasts in Daniel 7.

which btw, the angel does not identify the first 3 beasts as being any current empires or the same ones from Nebuchadnezzar's vision.
in fact... the angel says this.
17 These great beasts, which are four, are four kings, which shall arise out of the earth.

This was during the reign of the last King of the Neo-Babylonian Empire. There was not going to be another Babylonian King arising. Babylon was going to fall, and Persia would succeed it.
Therefore, the first 3 beasts are not Babylon, Persia, Greece.

This is speculation, but I believe it's 3 world powers that arise sequentially but are coexistent, and then come together globally as the 4th beast.
 
Upvote 0

RandyPNW

Well-Known Member
Jun 8, 2021
3,541
805
Pacific NW, USA
✟166,437.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
Then why didn't they translate it as "Greece" or "Grecia" in Genesis? They translated it as Javan. In other places of the bible namely, Ezekiel 38, they use the names of grandchildren of Noah .. still as the grandchildren of Noah, They use Gomer, Togarmah, Meshech and Tubal, etc.

The word is Javan, to make the assumption that that is "Greece" in one place and still Javan in another is very inconsistent and they are letting their interpretation get in the way of their translation.

2 things of note even from this commentary
1. first you can clearly see the actual word is Yavan (which is fair, J wasn't in early English even, it's a more modern thing, Jawan, Javan, Yavan, one of those keep it consistent translate don't interpret in the text) in the parenthesis. Not Greece. Greece is an interpretation, not a translation.
2. "properly Ionia, the western part of Asia Minor" That's Turkey, that is where the Javanites settled, it has been Gumby stretched to be Greece, primarily because they thought Alexander was the fulfillment.

IE, they read their interpretation into the text. They *altered* the text to fit their interpretation. A horrible thing really. They should have kept it Javan.
They could explain that they believed it was Greece in footnotes.
But the text itself should be consistently Jawan, Javan, Yavan,
Wikipedia on Javan:
Javan (Hebrew: יָוָן‎, Modern: Yavan, Tiberian: Yāwān) was the fourth son of Noah's son Japheth according to the "Generations of Noah" (Book of Genesis, chapter 10) in the Hebrew Bible. Josephus states the traditional belief that this individual was the ancestor of the Greeks.

Also serving as the Hebrew name for Greece or Greeks in general, יָוָן Yavan or Yāwān has long been considered cognate with the name of the eastern Greeks, the Ionians (Greek Ἴωνες Iōnes, Homeric Greek Ἰάονες Iáones; Mycenaean Greek *Ιαϝονες Iawones).[1] Giving that all Torah scrolls are strictly unpunctuated reading the word יון can give Yon, given as the letter Vaw may just as equally function as consonant (read "v") or vowel (read "o" or "ʊ"). The Greek race has been known by cognate names throughout the Eastern Mediterranean, Near East and beyond: see Sanskrit Yona & Sanskrit (यवन yavana) or the proto-Aryan languages from which Sanskrit probably originated. In Greek mythology, the eponymous forefather of the Ionians is similarly called Ion, a son of Apollo. The opinion that Javan is synonymous with Greek Ion and thus fathered the Ionians is common to numerous writers of the early modern period including Sir Walter Raleigh, Samuel Bochart, John Mill and Jonathan Edwards, and is still frequently encountered today.

Javan is also found in apocalyptic literature in the Book of Daniel, 8:21-22 and 11:2, in reference to the King of Greece (יון)—most commonly interpreted as a reference to Alexander the Great.[2]

While Javan is generally associated with the ancient Greeks and Greece (cf. Gen. 10:2, Dan. 8:21, Zech. 9:13, etc.), his sons (as listed in Genesis 10) have usually been associated with locations in the Northeastern Mediterranean Sea and Anatolia: Elishah Magna Graecia, Tarshish (Tarsus in Cilicia, but after 1646 often identified with Tartessus in Spain), Kittim (modern Cyprus), and Dodanim (alt. 1 Chron. 1:7 'Rodanim,' the island of Rhodes, west of modern Turkey between Cyprus and the mainland of Greece).[3]
Well the beast of Rev 13 is not Rome. Rome was the 6th king in the lineup but there would be a 7th and 8th. It's the 7th and 8th that are comparable to the 4th beast of Daniel 7.
It makes sense to me personally that the Beast of Rev 13 relates to the 4th Kingdom of Dan 2 and 7. And that's because the 4th Kingdom is said to be the last kingdom before the Kingdom of God comes.

The lineup of 7 kings in Rev 17 is another matter for interpretation. I personally believe that John has been given a cryptic application to 7 successive biblical kingdoms, drawn from the 7 kings of the 4th Beast in Dan 7. We know from Dan 7 that the 4th Kingdom ends up with 10 kingdoms and 7 kings, which appears related to the 10 horns and 7 heads of the Beast Kingdom in Rev 13.

But we are then told in Rev 17 that the 7 kings can be discerned by cryptic association with 7 historical kingdoms mentioned in the Bible. Beginning with Egypt we have Assyria, Babylon, Medo-Persia, Greece, and Rome, the 6th. And so, the 6th historical kingdom resolves the puzzle of this 4th Kingdom, which is also called a Prostitute. It is Rome. And the reason it has to be cryptically pointed out is because John could not confirm Rome's identity as the Beast Kingdom and as the Prostitute without appearing to be promoting an insurrection.

These 7 kings of the Beast Kingdom are also cryptically compared to 7 mountains, which also identify the Beast Kingdom as the Roman Kingdom.

The 7th king in the succession may be the endtime evolution of the Roman Kingdom as it consolidates the fragmented states of Europe back together under the Antichrist, an 8th king, who is viewed as virtually equivalent with the 7th Kingdom.
and he was confused by the vision, it was not something he understood, he asked questions and asked for interpretation.
I think they are not really the same thing.
As I said, Daniel's confusion was more about the fact he was being shown Israel's failures--it's brokenness as a People of God when they were called to be a People of God. It is the same kind of confusion that the apostles had when Jesus told them not to expect an immediate restoration of Israel after his resurrection. It was the same kind of confusion they had when Jesus on the Mount of Olives said Jerusalem would be defeated and the Temple demolished. How can a People destined for Salvation suffer a seemingly endless defeat?

But these prophecies were future to them, and they could not be expected to fully appreciate the process required to bring this Salvation about. Paul said it was required in order to bring many other nations into the hope of Salvation.
The beast in Revelation 13 is an amalgamation, a chimera, of the first 3 beasts in Daniel 7.
Yes, the 4 Beasts, or the 4 Kingdoms of Dan 2 and 7 were a series, an "amalgamation" of hostile actors preceding the coming of God's Kingdom to earth. The 4th Kingdom in its late stages would show this. And clearly, we are shown that the 4th Kingdom would not just be the ancient Roman Empire, but a late stage in which the 10 broken states would be reconsolidated under the Man of Sin.
which btw, the angel does not identify the first 3 beasts as being any current empires or the same ones from Nebuchadnezzar's vision.
in fact... the angel says this.
Which angel are you talking about? If the book of Revelation portrays these 2 Beasts at all, it is an instant reference back to the 4th Beast of Daniel. The addition of a 2nd Beast would certainly pertain to the 1st Beast, as even the account says.

But as I said, the vision is careful not to make direct association with the Roman Empire, or John would appear to look guilty of rebellion or sedition.
 
Upvote 0

RandyPNW

Well-Known Member
Jun 8, 2021
3,541
805
Pacific NW, USA
✟166,437.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
Then why didn't they translate it as "Greece" or "Grecia" in Genesis? They translated it as Javan. In other places of the bible namely, Ezekiel 38, they use the names of grandchildren of Noah .. still as the grandchildren of Noah, They use Gomer, Togarmah, Meshech and Tubal, etc.

The word is Javan, to make the assumption that that is "Greece" in one place and still Javan in another is very inconsistent and they are letting their interpretation get in the way of their translation.

2 things of note even from this commentary
1. first you can clearly see the actual word is Yavan (which is fair, J wasn't in early English even, it's a more modern thing, Jawan, Javan, Yavan, one of those keep it consistent translate don't interpret in the text) in the parenthesis. Not Greece. Greece is an interpretation, not a translation.
2. "properly Ionia, the western part of Asia Minor" That's Turkey, that is where the Javanites settled, it has been Gumby stretched to be Greece, primarily because they thought Alexander was the fulfillment.

IE, they read their interpretation into the text. They *altered* the text to fit their interpretation. A horrible thing really. They should have kept it Javan.
They could explain that they believed it was Greece in footnotes.
But the text itself should be consistently Jawan, Javan, Yavan,


Well the beast of Rev 13 is not Rome. Rome was the 6th king in the lineup but there would be a 7th and 8th. It's the 7th and 8th that are comparable to the 4th beast of Daniel 7.

and he was confused by the vision, it was not something he understood, he asked questions and asked for interpretation.
I think they are not really the same thing.

The beast in Revelation 13 is an amalgamation, a chimera, of the first 3 beasts in Daniel 7.

which btw, the angel does not identify the first 3 beasts as being any current empires or the same ones from Nebuchadnezzar's vision.
in fact... the angel says this.


This was during the reign of the last King of the Neo-Babylonian Empire. There was not going to be another Babylonian King arising. Babylon was going to fall, and Persia would succeed it.
Therefore, the first 3 beasts are not Babylon, Persia, Greece.

This is speculation, but I believe it's 3 world powers that arise sequentially but are coexistent, and then come together globally as the 4th beast.
I should probably add a couple of additional points on the matters you raised. To clarify, use of the word "Greece" for Javan or Yavan is not being disputed by me. Translators not only give a representative word in our native language but they attempt to give an accurate equivalent meaning that the native would properly understand.

Yavan may have been a proper designation for a territory including Greece in Daniel's language and time. But in our time, the context of its use in Dan 8 would specifically refer us to Greece, who can be properly referenced by the word Yavan. Translators would not want readers to be confused by a term that in our language indicates distinctions that were irrelevant in Daniel's time.

As to the future use of "will arise" with respect to the 4 kingdoms in Dan 7 I don't consider it relevant to the point that even Babylon, already existing, had not yet arisen as a set together with the other 3 kingdoms. So in effect, all 4 kingdoms had not yet arisen since the other 3 kingdoms had yet to "arise." That is, though Babylon had already arisen, the entire set had yet to arise.

Scholars view it this way, as well. They have said as much, and for that reason have no problem identifying the 4 kingdoms of Dan 7 the same as the 4 kingdoms of Dan 2. They are confirming dreams, telling both Nebuchadnezzar and Daniel the same things.
 
Upvote 0

Jamdoc

Watching and Praying Always
Oct 22, 2019
8,328
2,622
44
Helena
✟268,004.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Single
Wikipedia on Javan:
Javan (Hebrew: יָוָן‎, Modern: Yavan, Tiberian: Yāwān) was the fourth son of Noah's son Japheth according to the "Generations of Noah" (Book of Genesis, chapter 10) in the Hebrew Bible. Josephus states the traditional belief that this individual was the ancestor of the Greeks.

Also serving as the Hebrew name for Greece or Greeks in general, יָוָן Yavan or Yāwān has long been considered cognate with the name of the eastern Greeks, the Ionians (Greek Ἴωνες Iōnes, Homeric Greek Ἰάονες Iáones; Mycenaean Greek *Ιαϝονες Iawones).[1] Giving that all Torah scrolls are strictly unpunctuated reading the word יון can give Yon, given as the letter Vaw may just as equally function as consonant (read "v") or vowel (read "o" or "ʊ"). The Greek race has been known by cognate names throughout the Eastern Mediterranean, Near East and beyond: see Sanskrit Yona & Sanskrit (यवन yavana) or the proto-Aryan languages from which Sanskrit probably originated. In Greek mythology, the eponymous forefather of the Ionians is similarly called Ion, a son of Apollo. The opinion that Javan is synonymous with Greek Ion and thus fathered the Ionians is common to numerous writers of the early modern period including Sir Walter Raleigh, Samuel Bochart, John Mill and Jonathan Edwards, and is still frequently encountered today.

Javan is also found in apocalyptic literature in the Book of Daniel, 8:21-22 and 11:2, in reference to the King of Greece (יון)—most commonly interpreted as a reference to Alexander the Great.[2]

While Javan is generally associated with the ancient Greeks and Greece (cf. Gen. 10:2, Dan. 8:21, Zech. 9:13, etc.), his sons (as listed in Genesis 10) have usually been associated with locations in the Northeastern Mediterranean Sea and Anatolia: Elishah Magna Graecia, Tarshish (Tarsus in Cilicia, but after 1646 often identified with Tartessus in Spain), Kittim (modern Cyprus), and Dodanim (alt. 1 Chron. 1:7 'Rodanim,' the island of Rhodes, west of modern Turkey between Cyprus and the mainland of Greece).[3]
See.. that is what I mean by interpretation rather than translation.
They believed it represented Greece and so they inserted Greece, rather than leaving the translation of Javan.

I have similar disagreement with translating Cush as Ethiopia and Put as Libya. That kind of thing should be footnotes rather than inserted in the text.
It makes sense to me personally that the Beast of Rev 13 relates to the 4th Kingdom of Dan 2 and 7. And that's because the 4th Kingdom is said to be the last kingdom before the Kingdom of God comes.
the 4th Kingdom before the Kingdom of God comes in Daniel 2 would be accurate, but Daniel 7 is talking about the return of Christ, and there are 2 more Kingdoms after the Roman Empire involved in that in Revelation 17.

If you have Daniel 2 and 7 just being repeats of each other, you have a dispute with Revelation 17. But if they are talking about different things, Daniel 2 being Historical to the time of Jesus, and Christianity conquering the Roman Empire and the entire world.. but have Daniel 7 being a vision of the End Times... then it's not necessarily a dispute. The statue being the 4 empires from Daniel's time to Jesus' time, and the 4 beasts being 3 empires that exist around the time of the end that become a 4th beast that becomes global. Remember, Babylon had already arisen and it's time was nearing its end. It wasn't a "shall arise"
The lineup of 7 kings in Rev 17 is another matter for interpretation. I personally believe that John has been given a cryptic application to 7 successive biblical kingdoms, drawn from the 7 kings of the 4th Beast in Dan 7. We know from Dan 7 that the 4th Kingdom ends up with 10 kingdoms and 7 kings, which appears related to the 10 horns and 7 heads of the Beast Kingdom in Rev 13.

But we are then told in Rev 17 that the 7 kings can be discerned by cryptic association with 7 historical kingdoms mentioned in the Bible. Beginning with Egypt we have Assyria, Babylon, Medo-Persia, Greece, and Rome, the 6th. And so, the 6th historical kingdom resolves the puzzle of this 4th Kingdom, which is also called a Prostitute. It is Rome. And the reason it has to be cryptically pointed out is because John could not confirm Rome's identity as the Beast Kingdom and as the Prostitute without appearing to be promoting an insurrection.
Rome is not the prostitute in the text, that's an interpretation.

A key detail about the prostitute is that she is not the beast herself. Rather she rides the beast, she controls it initially, and the 10 kings hate and destroy her, and then prop up the beast. A few possible interpretations of the harlot are that she is a global government system (since the woman is described as the great city which reigns over the earth), or a religion that controls them because of the association of women with religions as a symbol, IE the bride Christianity, Jezebel with apostasy, etc.
These 7 kings of the Beast Kingdom are also cryptically compared to 7 mountains, which also identify the Beast Kingdom as the Roman Kingdom.
Mountains is a symbol for kings or kingdoms though, it's not a reference to "the seven hills of Rome"
The 7th king in the succession may be the endtime evolution of the Roman Kingdom as it consolidates the fragmented states of Europe back together under the Antichrist, an 8th king, who is viewed as virtually equivalent with the 7th Kingdom.
"Of the 7" doesn't mean is the 7th. It means it is one or more of them. Remember the Amalgamation idea. Also remember Micah 5, and other references to Antichrist as "the Assyrian" So this last beast is partially Assyrian Empire
Yes, the 4 Beasts, or the 4 Kingdoms of Dan 2 and 7 were a series, an "amalgamation" of hostile actors preceding the coming of God's Kingdom to earth. The 4th Kingdom in its late stages would show this. And clearly, we are shown that the 4th Kingdom would not just be the ancient Roman Empire, but a late stage in which the 10 broken states would be reconsolidated under the Man of Sin.
Rome was not an Amalgamation of Babylon or Persia, it did absorb a lot of Greek culture but was distinct from Babylon and Persia. Nebuchadnezzar's statue showed a progression of the 4 empires sequentially, but Daniel 7 shows that the 4th beast is different from all the others coming before it, and doesn't treat it as just a succession and Revelation 13 treats it as an amalgamation. Revelation 17 says the 8th king will be "of the 7" which most people interpret that it is ONE of the 7 previous empires that revives. But.. "of the 7" can also mean an amalgamation of multiple past empires. But the key thing I take away from the beast in Revelation is that it's a Chimera,, an amalgamation, it's not one single past empire reviving (as many people will say it's revived Roman empire) but contains elements of multiple empires at once, IE it can contain their foreign land, their cultures blended together, etc. Turkey becomes interesting here as well Geographically, as the territory of Turkey was part of multiple empires, it was part of the Assyrian, Greek, and Roman Empires, as well as being the seat of power for the Ottoman Empire.
Which angel are you talking about? If the book of Revelation portrays these 2 Beasts at all, it is an instant reference back to the 4th Beast of Daniel. The addition of a 2nd Beast would certainly pertain to the 1st Beast, as even the account says.
the angels in Daniel 7 that explain the beasts to Daniel
But as I said, the vision is careful not to make direct association with the Roman Empire, or John would appear to look guilty of rebellion or sedition.
John had already tried to be executed and they failed so they exiled him. Christianity was already illegal and persecuted by the Roman Empire, What are they going to do, make it double illegal? double exile him? Feed them to 2 lions rather than 1? Crucify them on 2 Crosses rather than 1?
There's literally nothing to be gained by claiming "well he meant Rome but couldn't say it was Rome" Why? They were already trying to kill him because of his illegal religion. They already killed all of the other apostles.
 
Upvote 0

RandyPNW

Well-Known Member
Jun 8, 2021
3,541
805
Pacific NW, USA
✟166,437.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
See.. that is what I mean by interpretation rather than translation.
They believed it represented Greece and so they inserted Greece, rather than leaving the translation of Javan.

I have similar disagreement with translating Cush as Ethiopia and Put as Libya. That kind of thing should be footnotes rather than inserted in the text.
I think if Greece was in the mind of the author, and the word 'Yavan" covers it, then inserting Greece seems perfectly acceptable to me, just as any foreign word gets translated differently when it uses an equivalent word in another tongue. In this case, a word for word translation might misrepresent both the intention and the meaning.

Your own problem seems to be that Greece does not fit your own preconceived belief about what the passage means. "Yavan," then, becomes a means of changing what the author actually intended to say. When he meant to imply "Greece," you want to think the implication excludes Greece, which is obviously untrue based on what I quoted to you.

Yavan apparently did refer to a region that included Greece, and not an area that excluded Greece. The context, then, indicates that the reference was to a part of Yavan that would fulfill the prophecy, which we now know to be Greece.

The context is not changing the meaning of Yavan--it is only suggesting to those at the time that Yavan would identify a people we now know to be Greeks. Translators felt the need to explain that with their translation, which is a translation by context more than a corruption of the translation.
the 4th Kingdom before the Kingdom of God comes in Daniel 2 would be accurate, but Daniel 7 is talking about the return of Christ, and there are 2 more Kingdoms after the Roman Empire involved in that in Revelation 17.
I don't think you understand what I was saying, though I don't blame you. It's difficult to say. Let's say I have 2 hands with 10 fingers, in which 3 of the fingers are partly cut off. So now I have 10 fingers with only 7 full fingers.

And let's say that Rome was stamped on those hands, and I couldn't tell anybody what was stamped on the hands. I had to use a cryptic device to explain that it was Rome to people who would understand the cryptic language.

So I tell them, to confuse those outside, that the 7 full fingers represent 7 cities, with the 6th city being Rome, currently having the dominance. That is a hint to those on the inside that the 2 hands represent Rome.

To provide a 2nd witness I add a 2nd cryptic puzzle. I said the 7 full fingers represent 7 hills. Those on the inside know that Rome has 7 hills. Again, the identification of the name stamped on the hands is Rome.

John was imprisoned by Rome, and couldn't tell his readers that Rome was a Prostitute and a Beast that would be defeated by Christianity. So he knew that they had been taught from Dan 7 that the Beast was the 4th Kingdom, Rome, with 10 horns and 7 heads, 3 of the heads having been defeated.

Then John used the 7 heads as a cryptic device to represent 2 figures that Christians would recognize as Rome. 1st was a set of 7 biblical kingdoms in the Bible, with the 6th kingdom representing Rome. And then he used the figure of 7 hills, which Christians would again recognize as Rome.

Beyond that, Christians would note that Rome was the city that presently rules, as John said in Rev 17.18.. And they would also know that Rome was a pagan Prostitute, who sold pagan peoples on false religions that worship people and creatures and persecute the saints.
If you have Daniel 2 and 7 just being repeats of each other, you have a dispute with Revelation 17. But if they are talking about different things, Daniel 2 being Historical to the time of Jesus, and Christianity conquering the Roman Empire and the entire world.. but have Daniel 7 being a vision of the End Times... then it's not necessarily a dispute. The statue being the 4 empires from Daniel's time to Jesus' time, and the 4 beasts being 3 empires that exist around the time of the end that become a 4th beast that becomes global. Remember, Babylon had already arisen and it's time was nearing its end. It wasn't a "shall arise"
An amalgamation of the 4 kingdoms contained in a latter day appearance of the 4th Kingdom does involve a 7th kingdom and an 8th king, and is not inconsistent with the introduction of all 4 kingdoms as a set. Though Daniel portrays this set of kingdoms as 4 in number, they could also be presented in a set of 7 kingdoms.

The 4th Kingdom has both an ancient and a latter-day manifestation, as evidenced by the breakup of the Kingdom into 10 states and their re-unification in the latter days. And so John is shown the Roman Kingdom as the 6th kingdom in succession and in the 7th Kingdom, with the 8th king being the King over this Kingdom.

It was normal for the Prophets to distinguish, at times, between a king and the kingdom over which he presides. In the case of Antichrist he appears as both a king and a kingdom. The "Beast" represents both the man and the Kingdom he rules over, because in him is the satanic leadership.
Rome is not the prostitute in the text, that's an interpretation.
It's an interpretation that seems to be intended to be understood by the use of subtle language.
A key detail about the prostitute is that she is not the beast herself.
I would differ. Yes, the prostitute rides the Beast. But it may be the relationship of a capital city to the Kingdom it presides over. In effect, Rome is the capital of the Roman Empire.
Rather she rides the beast, she controls it initially, and the 10 kings hate and destroy her, and then prop up the beast.
If Rome is the capital of the Beast Kingdom it makes sense that the Kingdom itself would hate her, because she is the vestige of an apostate Christian religion. It had corrupted itself with paganism, and just like ancient Israel, who corrupted herself with paganism, the result would be the pagan kingdom turning upon the apostate city.
Rome was not an Amalgamation of Babylon or Persia, it did absorb a lot of Greek culture but was distinct from Babylon and Persia.
The imperial tradition over the Mediterranean region was inherited by imperial Rome. That control has not been given back.

Whatever the 3 previous kingdoms had ruled over, Roman Power came to control the same. That was the amalgamation of power of all 4, having the same qualities that those previous powers held.
In the endtimes those 4 beasts reflect leopard, bear, and lion, which are predatory animals like ancient Babylon, Persia, and Greece. Latter-Day Rome will, I believe, continue to dominate Europe and the Mediterranean world, and maintain its imperial control under Antichrist.
There's literally nothing to be gained by claiming "well he meant Rome but couldn't say it was Rome" Why? They were already trying to kill him because of his illegal religion. They already killed all of the other apostles.
Don't agree. The Prophets were given to conceal things from unbelievers at times. That's why Jesus told parables.
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0

Jamdoc

Watching and Praying Always
Oct 22, 2019
8,328
2,622
44
Helena
✟268,004.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Single
I think if Greece was in the mind of the author, and the word 'Yavan" covers it, then inserting Greece seems perfectly acceptable to me, just as any foreign word gets translated differently when it uses an equivalent word in another tongue. In this case, a word for word translation might misrepresent both the intention and the meaning.

Your own problem seems to be that Greece does not fit your own preconceived belief about what the passage means. "Yavan," then, becomes a means of changing what the author actually intended to say. When he meant to imply "Greece," you want to think the implication excludes Greece, which is obviously untrue based on what I quoted to you.

Yavan apparently did refer to a region that included Greece, and not an area that excluded Greece. The context, then, indicates that the reference was to a part of Yavan that would fulfill the prophecy, which we now know to be Greece.

The context is not changing the meaning of Yavan--it is only suggesting to those at the time that Yavan would identify a people we now know to be Greeks. Translators felt the need to explain that with their translation, which is a translation by context more than a corruption of the translation.
The includes Greece, but isn't exclusively Greece is something I think warrants to be preserved in the text, that's why I think footnotes are the appropriate place to put such interpretations even if broadly held. Just inserting the interpretation can be misleading. Because you see it in the text and think "it's Greece in my bible, it's Alexander, end of story" it places a conclusion in front of you even if that conclusion can be wrong, or is incomplete. You don't have to think about it, you just accept what is in front of you... even if it's an interpretation rather than a direct translation.

Javan most specifically includes the region around Istanbul/Constantinople/Byzantium It includes parts that are now considered Greece or classically considered Greece, and parts that are now considered Turkey and were once part of the Ottoman Empire, once part of the Eastern Roman Empire, the Roman Empire as a whole, etc. It's changed hands a lot, and is an important place both historically and currently.

When people throw that interpretation 'it was Greece" "it was Historical" into the text when "translating" they do a disservice because it throws blinders on people who read it.
I accepted the historical interpretation for most of my life. Only recently have I noted the inconsistencies, and noted that the Hebrew word was not consistently translated to Greece or Grecia making it an interpretation rather than a translation.
Which brings everything else into question and explains the historical inaccuracies and the timing problem of it not being the end times as Gabriel said it would be.

It also makes Daniel a way more valuable book to study other than for history buffs willing to ignore discrepancies and usually accepting scholar's dating of Daniel being written by multiple authors in the 2nd century BC.
I don't think you understand what I was saying, though I don't blame you. It's difficult to say. Let's say I have 2 hands with 10 fingers, in which 3 of the fingers are partly cut off. So now I have 10 fingers with only 7 full fingers.

And let's say that Rome was stamped on those hands, and I couldn't tell anybody what was stamped on the hands. I had to use a cryptic device to explain that it was Rome to people who would understand the cryptic language.

So I tell them, to confuse those outside, that the 7 full fingers represent 7 cities, with the 6th city being Rome, currently having the dominance. That is a hint to those on the inside that the 2 hands represent Rome.

To provide a 2nd witness I add a 2nd cryptic puzzle. I said the 7 full fingers represent 7 hills. Those on the inside know that Rome has 7 hills. Again, the identification of the name stamped on the hands is Rome.

John was imprisoned by Rome, and couldn't tell his readers that Rome was a Prostitute and a Beast that would be defeated by Christianity. So he knew that they had been taught from Dan 7 that the Beast was the 4th Kingdom, Rome, with 10 horns and 7 heads, 3 of the heads having been defeated.

Then John used the 7 heads as a cryptic device to represent 2 figures that Christians would recognize as Rome. 1st was a set of 7 biblical kingdoms in the Bible, with the 6th kingdom representing Rome. And then he used the figure of 7 hills, which Christians would again recognize as Rome.

Beyond that, Christians would not that Rome was the city that presently rules, as John said in Rev 17.18.. And they would also know that Rome was a pagan Prostitute, who sold pagan peoples on false religions that worship people and persecute the saints.

An amalgamation of the 4 kingdoms contained in a latter day appearance of the 4th Kingdom does involve a 7th kingdom and an 8th king, and is not inconsistent with the introduction of all 4 kingdoms as a set. The fact the set is further split into a 7th endtime kingdom is evidenced in the account of the 4th Kingdom, in which 10 kings appear out of it after the initial Kingdom is divided. It has to be re-unified in a latter-day confederation of these divided parts.

It's an interpretation that seems to be intended to be understood by language designed to be subtle.

I would differ. Yes, the prostitute rides the Beast. But it may be the relationship of a capital city to the Kingdom it presides over. In effect, Rome is the capital of the Roman Empire.

If Rome is the capital of the Beast Kingdom it makes sense that the Kingdom itself would hate her, because she is the vestige of an apostate Christian religion. It had corrupted itself with paganism, and just like ancient Israel, who corrupted herself with paganism, the result would be the pagan kingdom turning upon the apostates.

The imperial tradition over the Mediterranean region was inherited by imperial Rome. That control has not been given back. Whatever the 3 previous kingdoms had ruled over, Roman Power came to control the same. That was the amalgamation of power of all 4, having the same qualities that those previous powers held. In the endtimes those 4 beasts reflect leopard, bear, and lion, which are predatory animals like ancient Babylon, Persia, and Greece.

Don't agree. The Prophets were given to conceal things from unbelievers at times. That's why Jesus told parables.

I think a lot of this can be summed up that I don't buy that John had to hide his "it's Rome" meaning.
They already tried to kill him.
They already exiled him
they were already executing Christians publicly.
The Church was already illegal

There was literally nothing to gain by "hiding" in code
 
Upvote 0

tailgator

Well-Known Member
Jun 23, 2024
924
93
61
Christian
✟33,510.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
See.. that is what I mean by interpretation rather than translation.
They believed it represented Greece and so they inserted Greece, rather than leaving the translation of Javan.

I have similar disagreement with translating Cush as Ethiopia and Put as Libya. That kind of thing should be footnotes rather than inserted in the text.

the 4th Kingdom before the Kingdom of God comes in Daniel 2 would be accurate, but Daniel 7 is talking about the return of Christ, and there are 2 more Kingdoms after the Roman Empire involved in that in Revelation 17.

If you have Daniel 2 and 7 just being repeats of each other, you have a dispute with Revelation 17. But if they are talking about different things, Daniel 2 being Historical to the time of Jesus, and Christianity conquering the Roman Empire and the entire world.. but have Daniel 7 being a vision of the End Times... then it's not necessarily a dispute. The statue being the 4 empires from Daniel's time to Jesus' time, and the 4 beasts being 3 empires that exist around the time of the end that become a 4th beast that becomes global. Remember, Babylon had already arisen and it's time was nearing its end. It wasn't a "shall arise"

Rome is not the prostitute in the text, that's an interpretation.

A key detail about the prostitute is that she is not the beast herself. Rather she rides the beast, she controls it initially, and the 10 kings hate and destroy her, and then prop up the beast. A few possible interpretations of the harlot are that she is a global government system (since the woman is described as the great city which reigns over the earth), or a religion that controls them because of the association of women with religions as a symbol, IE the bride Christianity, Jezebel with apostasy, etc.

Mountains is a symbol for kings or kingdoms though, it's not a reference to "the seven hills of Rome"

"Of the 7" doesn't mean is the 7th. It means it is one or more of them. Remember the Amalgamation idea. Also remember Micah 5, and other references to Antichrist as "the Assyrian" So this last beast is partially Assyrian Empire

Rome was not an Amalgamation of Babylon or Persia, it did absorb a lot of Greek culture but was distinct from Babylon and Persia. Nebuchadnezzar's statue showed a progression of the 4 empires sequentially, but Daniel 7 shows that the 4th beast is different from all the others coming before it, and doesn't treat it as just a succession and Revelation 13 treats it as an amalgamation. Revelation 17 says the 8th king will be "of the 7" which most people interpret that it is ONE of the 7 previous empires that revives. But.. "of the 7" can also mean an amalgamation of multiple past empires. But the key thing I take away from the beast in Revelation is that it's a Chimera,, an amalgamation, it's not one single past empire reviving (as many people will say it's revived Roman empire) but contains elements of multiple empires at once, IE it can contain their foreign land, their cultures blended together, etc. Turkey becomes interesting here as well Geographically, as the territory of Turkey was part of multiple empires, it was part of the Assyrian, Greek, and Roman Empires, as well as being the seat of power for the Ottoman Empire.

the angels in Daniel 7 that explain the beasts to Daniel

John had already tried to be executed and they failed so they exiled him. Christianity was already illegal and persecuted by the Roman Empire, What are they going to do, make it double illegal? double exile him? Feed them to 2 lions rather than 1? Crucify them on 2 Crosses rather than 1?
There's literally nothing to be gained by claiming "well he meant Rome but couldn't say it was Rome" Why? They were already trying to kill him because of his illegal religion. They already killed all of the other apostles.
The woman is a city that sits on seven hills .

It's not the world
It's not religions
It's not kings.

It's literally a city as taught in the bible.


Revelation 17:18
The woman you saw is the great city that rules over the kings of the earth.”



The king of the norths armed forces stationed in Jerusalem for those 42 months will reign over them.


Daniel 11
39 Thus shall he do in the most strong holds with a strange god, whom he shall acknowledge and increase with glory: and he shall cause them to rule over many, and shall divide the land for gain.



This rule will most likely start next year after Trump is reelected.
 
Upvote 0

RandyPNW

Well-Known Member
Jun 8, 2021
3,541
805
Pacific NW, USA
✟166,437.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
The includes Greece, but isn't exclusively Greece is something I think warrants to be preserved in the text, that's why I think footnotes are the appropriate place to put such interpretations even if broadly held. Just inserting the interpretation can be misleading. Because you see it in the text and think "it's Greece in my bible, it's Alexander, end of story" it places a conclusion in front of you even if that conclusion can be wrong, or is incomplete. You don't have to think about it, you just accept what is in front of you... even if it's an interpretation rather than a direct translation.

Javan most specifically includes the region around Istanbul/Constantinople/Byzantium It includes parts that are now considered Greece or classically considered Greece, and parts that are now considered Turkey and were once part of the Ottoman Empire, once part of the Eastern Roman Empire, the Roman Empire as a whole, etc. It's changed hands a lot, and is an important place both historically and currently.
Daniel was writing using expressions prevalent in his own time--not in our time, nor in the time of the Roman Empire. Scholars obviously felt that Daniel was using a valid expression for "Greece" in his use of the term "Yavan." Translators want their readers to know what Daniel meant by use of the term "Yavan," and obviously they considered "Greece" a reasonable translation. You are trying to be a scholar when you're not. I understand your logic, but I would take the consensus view of many scholars over the opinion of one guy who is not a scholar.
I think a lot of this can be summed up that I don't buy that John had to hide his "it's Rome" meaning.
They already tried to kill him.
They already exiled him
they were already executing Christians publicly.
The Church was already illegal

There was literally nothing to gain by "hiding" in code
Of course there was something to gain by hiding in code! If John had committed what seemed to be obvious sedition, and was executed, we would never have received the book of Revelation!

Does God hide things from those who maliciously twist words? Of course!

2 Thes 2.10 They perish because they refused to love the truth and so be saved. 11 For this reason God sends them a powerful delusion so that they will believe the lie 12 and so that all will be condemned who have not believed the truth but have delighted in wickedness.

Matt 13.10 The disciples came to him and asked, “Why do you speak to the people in parables?”
11 He replied, “Because the knowledge of the secrets of the kingdom of heaven has been given to you, but not to them.

Judges 14.15 On the fourth day, they said to Samson’s wife, “Coax your husband into explaining the riddle for us, or we will burn you and your father’s household to death. Did you invite us here to steal our property?”

2 Chron 18.14 When he arrived, the king asked him, “Micaiah, shall we go to war against Ramoth Gilead, or shall I not?”
“Attack and be victorious,” he answered, “for they will be given into your hand.”
15 The king said to him, “How many times must I make you swear to tell me nothing but the truth in the name of the Lord?”
 
Upvote 0

Jamdoc

Watching and Praying Always
Oct 22, 2019
8,328
2,622
44
Helena
✟268,004.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Single
The woman is a city that sits on seven hills .

It's not the world
It's not religions
It's not kings.

It's literally a city as taught in the bible.
It is a city, but it is not seven hills.

The seven mountains are seven kingdoms.
the angel explains mountains and then explains 7 kings.. seven kingdoms.
Context.
 
Upvote 0