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the Olivet Discourse understood

Jamdoc

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Daniel was writing using expressions prevalent in his own time--not in our time, nor in the time of the Roman Empire. Scholars obviously felt that Daniel was using a valid expression for "Greece" in his use of the term "Yavan." Translators want their readers to know what Daniel meant by use of the term "Yavan," and obviously they considered "Greece" a reasonable translation. You are trying to be a scholar when you're not. I understand your logic, but I would take the consensus view of many scholars over the opinion of one guy who is not a scholar.
Scholars obviously "felt"
That is
opinion
interpretation.

Not translation. That's the problem. They wrote their interpretation in the text rather than leaving it a translation and providing interpretation in footnotes or commentaries.
Of course there was something to gain by hiding in code! If John had committed what seemed to be obvious sedition, and was executed, we would never have received the book of Revelation!
Uh.. did you miss the part where they tried to kill him, couldn't kill him, and exiled him to Patmos?

They already tried.
There was literally nothing to gain from hiding in code, Rome already wanted him gone.
They tried boiling him in oil.
He came out miraculously alive.
God made sure he was going to write Revelation.
Does God hide things from those who maliciously twist words? Of course!

2 Thes 2.10 They perish because they refused to love the truth and so be saved. 11 For this reason God sends them a powerful delusion so that they will believe the lie 12 and so that all will be condemned who have not believed the truth but have delighted in wickedness.

Matt 13.10 The disciples came to him and asked, “Why do you speak to the people in parables?”
11 He replied, “Because the knowledge of the secrets of the kingdom of heaven has been given to you, but not to them.

Judges 14.15 On the fourth day, they said to Samson’s wife, “Coax your husband into explaining the riddle for us, or we will burn you and your father’s household to death. Did you invite us here to steal our property?”

2 Chron 18.14 When he arrived, the king asked him, “Micaiah, shall we go to war against Ramoth Gilead, or shall I not?”
“Attack and be victorious,” he answered, “for they will be given into your hand.”
15 The king said to him, “How many times must I make you swear to tell me nothing but the truth in the name of the Lord?”

Here's a question:

If Daniel is all historical events that happened before Jesus... why was it sealed till the time of the end? Why seal up a book well past the fulfillment of the events contained in it?
Shouldn't it have been unsealed around the time of Alexander the Great so they'd know what was happening at the time rather than hundreds of years later "oh, okay so that's what it was" How useless.

What's the point?
To give a history lesson full of glaring holes that people have to stretch to make it fit? To have scholars trying to jam a square peg into a round hole and change words because it's "close enough"?
 
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tailgator

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It is a city, but it is not seven hills.

The seven mountains are seven kingdoms.
the angel explains mountains and then explains 7 kings.. seven kingdoms.
Context.
Nope

The city does not sit on seven kingdoms
It sits on seven hills and reigns over the fourth kingdom.

The ten kings of the kingdom hate the prostitute and attack her at the time of the end.They kill the two witnesses,ransack the houses,rape the women.



Jerusalem is surrounded by seven mountain peaks that are higher than the city itself, which is built into the mountains. The seven hills of Jerusalem are:
  • Mount Scopus
  • Mount Olivet
  • Mount of Corruption
  • Mount Ophel
  • Original Mount Zion
  • New Mount Zion
  • Hill of the Antonia Fortress:

 
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RandyPNW

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Scholars obviously "felt"
That is
opinion
interpretation.

Not translation. That's the problem. They wrote their interpretation in the text rather than leaving it a translation and providing interpretation in footnotes or commentaries.
I've already answered this. And I'm still waiting for a response from my brother. He actually does some personal translation work. Translations do have to take some liberties beyond strictly word for word translating. And that's because the object is to convey not just an equivalent word but also what was meant to be conveyed by the writer.

If, in this case, Yavan was a reasonable expression for the part of the world that included Greece, then use of that word in modern times may indicate it is just Turkey and excludes Greece. And that would then not be a proper translation.

The context then is more important than a word for word translation and determines what aspect of Anatolia is in the view of the message. Yes, most translators view Greece as the reasonable translation for a word that is literally translated "Yavan." And that's because the context indicates that is what the message intended to convey by the term. It was a reference to the power that succeeded Medo-Persia and was led by Alexander the Great.

When I hear back from my brother I will give you his thoughts, if you wish?
Uh.. did you miss the part where they tried to kill him, couldn't kill him, and exiled him to Patmos?
No, did you miss my point in all this, that if they had killed him we wouldn't have had the Revelation! ;)

If Daniel is all historical events that happened before Jesus... why was it sealed till the time of the end? Why seal up a book well past the fulfillment of the events contained in it?
As I said before, the "end" is focused on the end of Israel's place as a theocracy, or a representative of the Kingdom of God. That Kingdom was taken from Israel and given to a nation more worthy of it, namely Roman Europe. And from there the Gospel has spread out to the whole world, to all nations.

So the end actually began with the Assyrian and Babylonian captivities--even moreso the Babylonian Captivity because the Assyrian Captivity annihilated the tribal configurations to the north of Jerusalem.

And that's why this teaching about the "end" begins with Daniel, who is in the Babylonian Capativity. He explains not just history leading to Jesus but history leading to the end of the age, to the end of Israel's collapse as a nation of God.

I believe that Israel will be restored at the end of this long period of great tribulation for the Jewish people. When their national punishment is over, I believe they will be restored. This is why I'm a Premillennialist, though I have respect for Amillennialists.

I heard back from my brother, and he had a short answer to this:

According to BDB, a good Hebrew lexicon,, Yavan refers to Ionia, Greece. It cites Daniel 8:21, adding "i.e. kingdom over which Alexander ruled, whose dominion was afterward divided (see v. 22ff)".

This is saying basically the same thing that I was saying. The literal translation is in reference to Ionia, but in context to a territory ruled by Greece. That's why translators translate it as Greece, the land over which the Greeks ruled at the specified time.
 
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Jamdoc

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I've already answered this. And I'm still waiting for a response from my brother. He actually does some personal translation work. Translations do have to take some liberties beyond strictly word for word translating. And that's because the object is to convey not just an equivalent word but also what was meant to be conveyed by the writer.

If, in this case, Yavan was a reasonable expression for the part of the world that included Greece, then use of that word in modern times may indicate it is just Turkey and excludes Greece. And that would then not be a proper translation.

The context then is more important than a word for word translation and determines what aspect of Anatolia is in the view of the message. Yes, most translators view Greece as the reasonable translation for a word that is literally translated "Yavan." And that's because the context indicates that is what the message intended to convey by the term. It was a reference to the power that succeeded Medo-Persia and was led by Alexander the Great.

When I hear back from my brother I will give you his thoughts, if you wish?
sure, but likely I don't find it satisfactory. Inserting their interpretation into the text forces a conclusion, and that conclusion can be wrong.

There are multiple historical inaccuracies between Daniel 8 and 11 vs what happened historically between Alexander and Antiochus. I covered Alexander before how he wasn't the first king, the kingdom was broken into more than 4 pieces (there were initially 12) by people who followed him, thus after his dominion which conflicts Daniel 11, and Antiochus never directly opposed Jesus, which is what the little horn does in Daniel 8.
You have to Gumby stretch a lot to somehow "spiritually" come to the interpretation that Antiochus faced Jesus and died. Not to mention, Daniel 11 has the vile man plant his tabernacle on the Holy Mountain, and then die, Antiochus died in Babylon of a fever.

are there a lot of similarities? Yes.
is it a 1:1 fulfillment? No.

and that's why I say there's a yet future fulfillment, that will be 1:1.
No, did you miss my point in all this, that if they had killed him we wouldn't have had the Revelation! ;)
They tried to kill him.
They boiled him in oil and he survived.
That's why they exiled him. They couldn't kill him.
It's like with Daniel's 3 friends, they threw them in a furnace and the fire could not touch them. If God has a purpose for a person that has not been completed yet? He'll protect them.

and it won't be us protecting ourselves by using code to not have the Romans try to kill us..... even though they already tried.
As I said before, the "end" is focused on the end of Israel's place as a theocracy, or a representative of the Kingdom of God. That Kingdom was taken from Israel and given to a nation more worthy of it, namely Roman Europe. And from there the Gospel has spread out to the whole world, to all nations.

So the end actually began with the Assyrian and Babylonian captivities--even moreso the Babylonian Captivity because the Assyrian Captivity annihilated the tribal configurations to the north of Jerusalem.
The end is the end.. no time before Pentecost could even be considered the time of the end.
Jews still avoid reading Daniel because they consider it sealed until the time of the end.
Christians think it's the time of the end since Pentecost so they believe Daniel is unsealed. I'm not so sure because they read it and think of it as history rather than prophecy, which is useless to seal up.

Jeremiah was relevant prophecy to the Jews of his day, so it wasn't sealed up. A historical interpretation of Daniel would be useful for Jews between the days of 530-160BC or so, but it was sealed until after Christ, meaning that now all of it is useless if it's history.
And that's why this teaching about the "end" begins with Daniel, who is in the Babylonian Capativity. He explains not just history leading to Jesus but history leading to the end of the age, to the end of Israel's collapse as a nation of God.

I believe that Israel will be restored at the end of this long period of great tribulation for the Jewish people. When their national punishment is over, I believe they will be restored. This is why I'm a Premillennialist, though I have respect for Amillennialists.

I heard back from my brother, and he had a short answer to this:

According to BDB, a good Hebrew lexicon,, Yavan refers to Ionia, Greece. It cites Daniel 8:21, adding "i.e. kingdom over which Alexander ruled, whose dominion was afterward divided (see v. 22ff)".

This is saying basically the same thing that I was saying. The literal translation is in reference to Ionia, but in context to a territory ruled by Greece. That's why translators translate it as Greece, the land over which the Greeks ruled at the specified time.
But to many modern readers, they don't consider "Greece" to include large chunks of Modern day Turkey. Their focus drifts to Athens, not Istanbul.
 
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RandyPNW

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sure, but likely I don't find it satisfactory. Inserting their interpretation into the text forces a conclusion, and that conclusion can be wrong.

There are multiple historical inaccuracies between Daniel 8 and 11 vs what happened historically between Alexander and Antiochus. I covered Alexander before how he wasn't the first king, the kingdom was broken into more than 4 pieces (there were initially 12) by people who followed him, thus after his dominion which conflicts Daniel 11, and Antiochus never directly opposed Jesus, which is what the little horn does in Daniel 8.
In my opinion the problem is not with the prophecy, but rather with your interpretation of the prophecy. It is not an inaccurate history, but rather, how God looks at the history.

No matter how many pieces Alexander's kingdom broke up into, God's concern seemed to be with 4 particularly strong pieces, the most important being the Seleucids and the Ptolemies. There was also Macedonia and the northern part of Asia Minor. The count may have changed, but what was significant in the prophecy were the 4 entities that did exist at some point.

I already addressed whether Alexander the Great was the "1st king." He started a particular tradition, regardless of who was the actual 1st king of Macedon/Greece. He was the 1st King over the Hellenistic Empire, as such.

It seems you just want to make yourself an authority and critic over biblical scholars. Incidentally, I received another message from my brother, who does not indicate he places any serious reliance on the older commentators at Bible Hub. He may use it, but recognizes that they being old have dealt with dated material.

So I may question some of the conclusions these commentators draw. But I think some things in the Bible are pretty self-explanatory given the consensus view of the history applying to biblical prophecies.
You have to Gumby stretch a lot to somehow "spiritually" come to the interpretation that Antiochus faced Jesus and died.
Never said that. I said the "endtimes" began with the Babylonian Captivity and stretches to the end of the age. That is the time of the Jewish "punishment," their "great tribulation."
Not to mention, Daniel 11 has the vile man plant his tabernacle on the Holy Mountain, and then die, Antiochus died in Babylon of a fever.
Antiochus 4 had a general stationed at his military palace near Jerusalem.
They boiled him in oil and he survived.
That's why they exiled him. They couldn't kill him.
God showed John that he shouldn't provoke his Roman captors by saying things that they wouldn't understand. It's a good lesson for all of us.
The end is the end.. no time before Pentecost could even be considered the time of the end.
Your view--not mine. The end is the time when Israel lost her theocracy. And we are still in those "endtimes."
But to many modern readers, they don't consider "Greece" to include large chunks of Modern day Turkey. Their focus drifts to Athens, not Istanbul.
What are your sources for these "many modern readers?" I assume they are not "many modern scholars?"
 
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Jamdoc

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In my opinion the problem is not with the prophecy, but rather with your interpretation of the prophecy. It is not an inaccurate history, but rather, how God looks at the history.

No matter how many pieces Alexander's kingdom broke up into, God's concern seemed to be with 4 particularly strong pieces, the most important being the Seleucids and the Ptolemies. There was also Macedonia and the northern part of Asia Minor. The count may have changed, but what was significant in the prophecy were the 4 entities that did exist at some point.

I already addressed whether Alexander the Great was the "1st king." He started a particular tradition, regardless of who was the actual 1st king of Macedon/Greece. He was the 1st King over the Hellenistic Empire, as such.

It seems you just want to make yourself an authority and critic over biblical scholars. Incidentally, I received another message from my brother, who does not indicate he places any serious reliance on the older commentators at Bible Hub. He may use it, but recognizes that they being old have dealt with dated material.

So I may question some of the conclusions these commentators draw. But I think some things in the Bible are pretty self-explanatory given the consensus view of the history applying to biblical prophecies.

Never said that. I said the "endtimes" began with the Babylonian Captivity and stretches to the end of the age. That is the time of the Jewish "punishment," their "great tribulation."

Antiochus 4 had a general stationed at his military palace near Jerusalem.

God showed John that he shouldn't provoke his Roman captors by saying things that they wouldn't understand. It's a good lesson for all of us.

Your view--not mine. The end is the time when Israel lost her theocracy. And we are still in those "endtimes."

What are your sources for these "many modern readers?" I assume they are not "many modern scholars?"

Daniel 8 has the little horn face Jesus and die without a hand being raised against him. Antiochus was BC.
So it requires extensive mental gymnastics to claim he faced Jesus.

Daniel 11 has him die in Jerusalem.
Antiochus died in Babylon.
 
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RandyPNW

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Daniel 8 has the little horn face Jesus and die without a hand being raised against him. Antiochus was BC.
So it requires extensive mental gymnastics to claim he faced Jesus.
Why do you keep saying this? I *never* said Antiochus 4 faced Jesus!
Daniel 11 has him die in Jerusalem.
Antiochus died in Babylon.
As I said, he does not have him die in Jerusalem. Read it again...

Dan 11.45 He will pitch his royal tents between the seas at the beautiful holy mountain. Yet he will come to his end, and no one will help him.

Antiochus set up a military palace outside of Jerusalem, "between the seas at the beautiful holy mountain." His general manned that palace while Antiochus was away, fighting the Persians. On his way back Antiochus died. He was utterly helpless to overcome his illness.
 
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Jamdoc

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Why do you keep saying this? I *never* said Antiochus 4 faced Jesus!

Well then
Daniel 8
22 Now that being broken, whereas four stood up for it, four kingdoms shall stand up out of the nation, but not in his power.
23 And in the latter time of their kingdom, when the transgressors are come to the full, a king of fierce countenance, and understanding dark sentences, shall stand up.
24 And his power shall be mighty, but not by his own power: and he shall destroy wonderfully, and shall prosper, and practise, and shall destroy the mighty and the holy people.
25 And through his policy also he shall cause craft to prosper in his hand; and he shall magnify himself in his heart, and by peace shall destroy many: he shall also stand up against the Prince of princes; but he shall be broken without hand.

Gabriel explaining the ram and goat vision to Daniel, if this is about Ancient Greece, isn't this about Antiochus?
It says he's possessed (likely by a demonic power, or Satan himself), and he stands against the Prince of princes.

Is that not Jesus? In Daniel 9 it is Messiah the Prince.
As I said, he does not have him die in Jerusalem. Read it again...

Dan 11.45 He will pitch his royal tents between the seas at the beautiful holy mountain. Yet he will come to his end, and no one will help him.

Antiochus set up a military palace outside of Jerusalem, "between the seas at the beautiful holy mountain." His general manned that palace while Antiochus was away, fighting the Persians. On his way back Antiochus died. He was utterly helpless to overcome his illness.
That's a stretch. establishing that he sets up his tabernacle on the Temple Mount, then goes somewhere way far away and comes to his end
even though the last place they give for him... is Jerusalem.
 
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