OK, Anticipate, I'm up for this. I don't have very many answers for your questions, which means this is a good place for me to start.
BTW, before I got to this post, I had planned to request:
This has nothing to do with my question. There are multiple examples in scriptures of things being one but not equal.
I'm not disagreeing with you, but I'm drawing a blank. None are coming to mind. Could you kindly provide examples, so that I better understand your thinking on this? Thank you.
Again I will say, this is not how the Nicene Creed reads. It says ONE God then the Father Almighty.
Very well. We can explore this then. I'm not completely sure I understand you, so if I misread you anywhere, feel free to correct me.
And I don't have many answers - maybe none - for your questions. We'll have to see where it goes. Thanks for your comments.
Originally Posted by Kylissa
The three persons of the Trinity are all co-equal. They are all God. One God in three persons.
You quote a different creed, not one that is criteria for being orthodox on this forum. Please quote scripture to defend what you believe and proclaim.
This is where I put on my surprised face. I thought this was pretty basic orthodox Christian belief. One God, in three Persons, co-equal, co-eternal.
I've reexamined nearly everything I believe, but to be honest, I have not reexamined that one. I can't quote Scripture offhand - I could look for it.
If it was just the wording, then I apologize if I've been misunderstood. But if there truly is a problem with what I quoted - other than perhaps the "co-equal" part, which from the rest of your post seems to be the problem, please let me know.
There are three parts of the Nicene creed that describe the three persons of God. They are separate because each person has different qualities, just like the church is one but made up of different unequal people.
That is actually how I read the Creed myself.
I wonder if it's meant to be understood as
I believe in One God:
- The Father Almighty, Creator of all things
- One Lord Jesus Christ, (Who for us men and our salvation ... )
- The Holy Spirit, Lord and giver of Life
I'm not sure. But that's kind of how I understand it when I read it?
You repeat the common excuse to dismiss Jesus' clear words. Read the context of John 14, your explanation makes no sense. Jesus says he is going to heaven but the disciples should not be distraught because he will ask the Father who is greater, to send the Holy Spirit. If Jesus was going to heaven and would resume his greater glory with equal power to the Father and Holy Spirit, he would just send the Holy Spirit himself and not ask the greater Father to send him.
I actually don't know about any common excuse. I was just speculating (and I think I was clear that it was a guess). But this is a little more difficult to discuss because you're pulling together verses that are separated by a bit. I'm guessing you mean v. 28?
“You heard that I said to you, ‘I go away, and I will come to you.’ If you loved Me, you would have rejoiced because I go to the Father, for the Father is greater than I.
I'm not so sure that this is the reason the Father will send the Spirit. To be honest, I've never thought of that, but the discussion of sending the Holy Spirit is separated from this by a bit of other discussion, so I'm leery of saying one is true by reason of the other. I may be wrong. As I said, I've never looked at it. I'm willing to consider, but ...
The best answer I have for you is that I learned the Creed without the filioque ... the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Father. Period. The reasons for that and implications are pretty complex for me, and I've been working on them for some time.
I will also say that there are many other scriptures that point to the Father being greater.
Jesus taught us to pray to the Father; with thy will be done and thine is the kingdom and power and glory.
The Son was given authority over creation.
1 Cor 15:27 For he[Father] “has put everything under his[Jesus] feet.” Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include God himself, who put everything under Christ. 28 When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.
OK, read for what it says (and it seems to say plainly) ... this passage would be very convincing for the point I think you are making. Indeed, I may be wrong.
But in reading a wider context I get that there is a possibility of a different interpretation.
20 But now Christ has been raised from the dead, the first fruits of those who are asleep. 21 For since by a man came death, by a man also came the resurrection of the dead. 22 For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ all will be made alive. 23 But each in his own order: Christ the first fruits, after that those who are Christ’s at His coming, 24 then comes the end, when He hands over the kingdom to the God and Father, when He has abolished all rule and all authority and power. 25 For He must reign until He has put all His enemies under His feet. 26 The last enemy that will be abolished is death. 27 For HE HAS PUT ALL THINGS IN SUBJECTION UNDER HIS FEET. But when He says, “All things are put in subjection,” it is evident that He is excepted who put all things in subjection to Him. 28 When all things are subjected to Him, then the Son Himself also will be subjected to the One who subjected all things to Him, so that God may be all in all. 29 Otherwise, what will those do who are baptized for the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why then are they baptized for them?
Again, I am speculating here. This is not something I've looked at or considered before (so I thank you for bringing it to my attention).
But the subject here seems to be about death, not about the order of authority? And if we are talking about death, the fact is the Christ alone died - not God the Father. So that just muddies the waters of what may be the intent of this passage a bit.
You may be right. But I'm not sure yet.
Look to the places where God the Father made his presence known to man, the glory being so great that man trembled in fear. Compare this to even Jesus' transfiguration and you will note that the level of glory is not the same.
Matt 17
1 Six days later Jesus took with Him Peter and James and John his brother, and led them up on a high mountain by themselves. 2 And He was transfigured before them; and His face shone like the sun, and His garments became as white as light. 3 And behold, Moses and Elijah appeared to them, talking with Him. 4 Peter said to Jesus, “Lord, it is good for us to be here; if You wish, I will make three tabernacles here, one for You, and one for Moses, and one for Elijah.” 5 While he was still speaking, a bright cloud overshadowed them, and behold, a voice out of the cloud said, “This is My beloved Son, with whom I am well-pleased; listen to Him!” 6 When the disciples heard this, they fell face down to the ground and were terrified.
I see your point. And again, you may be right. But I'm leery of deciding theology saying that the Father and the Son are not equal based on this illustration. It is a good point to bring out. I'm willing to look further in case I have gotten confused over where I learned what and the reasons why.
You could easily discuss all this in a seperate thread. I don't wish to do that here. I just want to discuss what is stated in the Nicene Creed without the baggage of another creed.
I was originally going to open another thread, but I think it can be useful to talk about it here, since it's the Creed we are discussing.
I'm sorry - I feel as though I should know this, but what Creed are you speaking of that I am confusing it with?
Thank you for your post.