"I gave a comprehensive - though not exhaustive - answer. I offered many verses from both the Old and New Testaments that plainly indicate the idea of an immaterial soul that survives the death of the physical body.
Do they indicate it or is it your interpretation of those passages that indicates it? You're bringing the same argument the others did. None of these passages states that there is an immaterial part of man that lives on after the death of the body. That means you're drawing inferences from what you read."
As I pointed out before, drawing inferences is a perfectly legitimate thing to do. Homicide detectives do this all the time. So do scientists and historians. All of the passages clearly imply an immaterial soul that lives on after death. Since I don't have a vested interest - as you do - in denying these clear implications, I can read them in a straightforward manner that requires none of the fancy footwork you're reduced to in your attempts to dismiss them.
That you've posted these passages as support for the idea that there is an immaterial part of man that lives on after the death of the body shows that you believe that there is an immaterial part of man that lives on after the death of the body. Since these passages don't state that you must have come to the text with that idea already.
I'm afraid your reasoning here is a non sequitur. As I just explained, homicide detectives work from inferences all the time - but that doesn't mean they have the murder they're investigating all worked out already. Making an inference doesn't
necessarily require having a view to which one conforms what is implied.
So, the premise is that there is an immaterial part of man that lives on after the death of the body. The evidence is passages from which you've "inferred" that there is an immaterial part of man that lives on after the death of the body. The conclusion is that there is an immaterial part of man that lives on after the death of the body.
Nope. The verses clearly imply an immaterial soul that survives death so I believe that there is such a thing. It's no more complicated than that.
You really
don't understand the Circular Reasoning Fallacy! Scientists often come to the work of science having
already formed a hypothesis. They do empirical research to see if their hypothesis is valid. If they find that their research confirms their hypothesis, they are not accused of
circular reasoning, but of proving their hypothesis. So, if someone comes to the Bible with a pre-existing notion, a hypothesis, about an immaterial soul and they study the Bible and discover the clear implication of such a thing in it, they are not guilty of circular reasoning but of
confirming their hypothesis! Only when someone says, "I believe in an immaterial soul because immaterial souls exist and I know they exist because I believe they do," are they guilty of circular reasoning.
The passages you posted don't state what you claim. Therefore you've inferred your idea from them. People interpret the texts based on their presuppositions. I'll bet that before you became a Christian you believed that there was some part of man that lived on after death. Is that correct? If so, then that presupposition is being brought to the Biblical texts rather that being drawn from them.
It doesn't matter what my presuppositions might have been if they coincide with what Scripture plainly indicates.
Every reader brings a collection of ideas and experiences to their reading of the biblical text. Even you. In some instances, those ideas must be altered; in others, they must be abandoned; there are times, though, when a person's ideas and experiences are
confirmed by Scripture. It is not
always that a presupposition is forced upon the text of the Bible by a reader. That has to be
shown, not merely
asserted, as you are doing.
9 When He opened the fifth seal, I saw under the altar the souls of those who had been slain for the word of God and for the testimony which they held.
10 And they cried with a loud voice, saying, "How long, O Lord, holy and true, until You judge and avenge our blood on those who dwell on the earth?"
Revelation is a book full of symbolism. Since you claim is that this passage proves that there is some part of man that lives on after the death of the body, you need to prove that that is possible. Since the dead are dead this is obviously figurative language. After all, these are martyrs and the definition of a martyr is one who has died.
The Revelation is a highly figurative book - at times. Not
all that is revealed in it, though, is figurative or symbolic. There are many things the apostle John writes of in his revelation that may be taken quite literally. John writes of angels, of Christ, of God, of heaven and divine judgment poured out on wicked humanity. These are not figures or symbols, stand-ins for other things. So, it is not reasonable to simply dismiss a portion of the Revelation as symbolic whenever it contradicts what you want to believe. You must do more to justify dismissing the martyred saints as symbolic than you have done. "The book is symbolic" hardly constitutes a good reason to think the saints crying out are figurative. What are they symbolic of? Why would
figurative beings be having a conversation with a
real Being? Why would God respond to the cries of non-literal beings? What do their being clothed in white robes symbolize? And so on. As far as I'm concerned, in the passage in Revelation 14, the reader is perfectly justified in thinking the martyred saints are actually martyred saints, that they do really cry out, and that God really does answer them. Certainly, nothing in the passage itself forbids such a simple, straightforward reading.
I need to
prove it is possible for the soul to survive beyond the death of the body? What do you mean by "prove"? How have you "proved" the soul does
not do so? You have done exactly what I have done and have argued from Scripture for your view. How, then, is your view more "proved" than mine? As I've demonstrated, there are many Bible verses and passages that clearly indicate an immaterial soul that survives beyond death. Your above attempt to refute one of them has been entirely unsuccessful. It doesn't look to me, then, like you have held yourself to your own standard and have "proved" your view that there is no immaterial soul that survives the death of the body.
"The dead are dead"? The
physical body is dead but, as Scripture shows, that does not mean the immaterial soul has ceased to be as well. Your conclusion that it
must be figurative language that is used in describing the martyred saints because "the dead are dead" is the very sort of Begging the Question you have repeatedly objected to! Your conclusion
assumes the veracity of your premise. Essentially, your argument goes:
1. The dead are dead and cannot do anything.
2. The martyred saints in Revelation 14 are dead.
3. Therefore, their existence in heaven and their "crying out" must be figurative.
Your conclusion succeeds only if we grant your first premise as true. But I don't think it is true at all! And I have posted
many verses and passages that demonstrate why. Until you have shown that none of those verses or passages actually contradict your first premise, you cannot employ it as a given as you have here.
Jesus points out that Moses showed that the dead are raised. This is about the resurrection, not the state of the dead before the Resurrection. Notice Luke records, "for all live unto him." From God's perspective all live. Why is that? Because God is the source of life and will raise all again.
Nope. Consider the following quotation:
All live unto him—There is a remarkable passage in Josephus's account of the Maccabees, chap. xvi., which proves that the best informed Jews believed that the souls of righteous men were in the presence of God in a state of happiness. "They who lose their lives for the sake of God, LIVE unto GOD, as do Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, and the rest of the patriarchs." And one not less remarkable in Shemoth Rabba, fol. 159. "Rabbi Abbin saith, The Lord said unto Moses, Find me out ten righteous persons among the people, and I will not destroy thy people. Then said Moses, Behold, here am I, Aaron, Eleazar, Ithamar, Phineas, Caleb, and Joshua; but God said, Here are but seven, where are the other three? When Moses knew not what to do, he said, O Eternal God, do those live that are dead! Yes, saith God. Then said Moses, If those that are dead do live, remember Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob." So the resurrection of the dead, and the immortality and immateriality of the soul, were not strange or unknown doctrines among the Jews. (Adam Clarke - A Commentary and Critical Notes.)
You wrote, "
From God's perspective, all live." The passage doesn't make any such qualification. In fact, Jesus is quoting Moses and is explaining
Moses' perspective. And Moses clearly states, not that Abraham, Isaac and Jacob will live again
at some point in the future, but that they "all live - simple
present tense - unto God"
right now. And as we see in the quotation above, this would have been a commonly-held understanding among the Jews to whom Jesus was speaking (and why we see Moses speaking with Jesus on the Mount of Transfiguration). I don't see, then, that you have succeeded in refuting the import of the passage in Luke 20 regarding an immaterial soul that survives physical death.
Selah.