People are in hell for sin - as the wages of sin is death (Romans 6:23). They perished in unbelief despite the fact that Christ made an atonement for everyone's sin (1 John 2:2) - that is because Christ's atonement is applied conditionally. See Post 60 for more information.
If it knows no time boundaries, then how can there be anger for sins since all would fall under the atonement?
Unbelief is a sin. If Christ died for that sin, too, then there’s no sin to be punished for.
As such, unbelief will keep you from receiving the atonement for the sin of unbelief.
This is a very common problem with most Calvinists I’ve encountered is they typically read certain passages of scripture and build doctrines that contradict other passages. You can’t arrive at a sound theology based on doctrines formulated from one passage while completely ignoring the fact that said doctrine contradicts other passages in the scriptures. This is why you’ve repeatedly declined to answer the simple question I’ve asked you three times already, we’re the people that Peter was speaking to in Acts 2 & 3 forgiven of their sins? You refuse to answer the question because it proves your theology is incorrect. You would have to directly contradict what Peter said in Acts 2 & 3 “repent and believe so that you may be forgiven” in order to answer the question. So rather than answer the simple question you choose to ignore it which is why you don’t understand Colossians 2. It’s not that you don’t understand it, it’s that you refuse to admit it. “He who has ears to hear, let him hear”.
Because continuing in sin is sin which you’ve just said Christ’s death satisfied God’s wrath for. God’s wrath must be satisfied for all sin, or just some. You can’t just keep jumping back and forth like you are doing.
Maybe I’ll try this a different way. When you say paid for, what exactly does that mean?
It was intended to expose the fact that you’re ignoring what Peter said in Acts 2 & 3. Your theology is in opposition to what Peter specifically stated in Acts 2 & 3 therefore it cannot be sound theology. You can’t formulate a theology that contradicts other verses. Our theology must be in line with all scripture in order to be considered sound theology.
The atonement covers sin regardless of when the person lived or will live. It effects nothing if the person doesn't respond to it. IOW, salvation is not universal. God's forgiveness is universal, but, again, means nothing to the person who doesn't care, who doesn't respond in kind to the love he's been show, So, again, for example,
If I've jumped around I apologize-not meaning to do so. But the most basic difference between us seems to center around whether or not the atonement is limited to a predestined elect only, or whether it's universal but effective only for those who choose rightly, with the help of grace, and continue to choose rightly as they persevere, overcoming sin, living righteously as they succeed in loving to a degree that satisfies God, with the help of that same grace.
Then I don’t understand what you mean by “covers sin”. I thought your position was that God’s wrath was satisfied for all sin. That doesn’t seem to be the case.
Sins, all sins were paid for by Christ. What wasn't paid for was " human good." Human 'good' deeds. That is why in revelation we see the judgement of human DEEDS. Not Human sin. All unbelievers get to plead their case of their 'good' deeds to save them. And we all know how that will work out.
