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I think what you actually meant is "I don't disagree with what I think Jesus said, why do you?"
If so, then the answer to your question will emerge naturally.
So why didn't your answer emerge naturally?
What do you think Jesus said in Matthew 12:50?
So since I think Jesus meant differently from what you think, there is no reason why I would agree with you. =)
How can you think Jesus meant differently if you can't tell us what He said?
I already did, but you rejected my explanation.
Just because you reject it does not mean I didn't tell you.
I disagree. He was speaking generally about anyone who would believe in Him and belong to Him as being His brethren. It's not as if He didn't know that the gospel would eventually go out to the Gentiles as well.Gentiles were still cut off during the 1st coming of Jesus (Ephesians 2:11-12), we were separate from Christ, so Jesus cannot be referring to gentiles with that statement. It must still be Jews.
He was speaking in a general sense there. He wasn't talking about all Gentiles. Read this:Remember he called Gentiles dogs in Matthew 15:26?
I disagree. He was speaking generally about anyone who would believe in Him and belong to Him as being His brethren. It's not as if He didn't know that the gospel would eventually go out to the Gentiles as well.
He was speaking in a general sense there. He wasn't talking about all Gentiles. Read this:
Acts 10:1 At Caesarea there was a man named Cornelius, a centurion in what was known as the Italian Regiment. 2 He and all his family were devout and God-fearing; he gave generously to those in need and prayed to God regularly.
Do you think Jesus would have called Cornelius and his family dogs? Of course not. You're not using any discernment here. You take everything as blanket statements without discerning the context.
Why can't some Christians be taken at the beginning of the tribulation and some taken at the end of the tribulation?
Another consideration is that, those gentiles who blessed Israel will also be blessed by God, under the Abrahamic covenant, and vice versa. (Genesis 22:18, Deuteronomy 23:3-4). That was why Jesus was willing to help another Roman centurion in the 4 gospels (Luke 7:5).
He then further still nails down the timing in 2nd Thessalonians because of their confusion, he says "that day" (same day in 1st Thes 4:17) shall not happen until certain events happened.
I strongly disagree.I am rightly dividing the word of truth (2 Timothy 2:15)
What I was asking you is whether or not Jesus would have called Cornelius and his family dogs at the time while He was alive before His death and resurrection. Yes or no? I say definitely not since Cornelius was already devout and God-fearing at that time (he just didn't know about Jesus and the gospel yet). But, you apparently would say yes.To mid acts dispensationalists, there is a significant difference in how gentiles were regarded in time past, and how they are regarded by God in the but now (Ephesians 2:11-13)
The event that led to that change was the stoning of Stephen at Acts 7. We believe Israel fell at Acts 7 and thru their fall, salvation has been released to the gentiles (Romans 11:11). So the Roman Centurion account came after the fall of Israel.
Thus, there is no contradiction is saying that the Canaanite lady was called a dog by Jesus in his first coming, and for the Roman Centurion to be regarded differently, by the time Acts 10 arrived.
I strongly disagree.
What I was asking you is whether or not Jesus would have called Cornelius and his family dogs at the time while He was alive before His death and resurrection. Yes or no? I say definitely not since Cornelius was already devout and God-fearing at that time (he just didn't know about Jesus and the gospel yet). But, you apparently would say yes.
That does not mean He considered literally all Gentiles to be dogs. That makes no sense. He was speaking in a general sense there and you're taking it too literally. He surely would not have considered devout and God fearing people like Cornelius and his family to be dogs. I guarantee that.Well, both of us are speculating here, since Jesus never had a chance to meet Cornelius.
I simply gave a scripture example of how Jesus called gentiles dogs in time past (Matthew 15:26).
That does not mean He considered literally all Gentiles to be dogs. That makes no sense. He was speaking in a general sense there and you're taking it too literally. He surely would not have considered devout and God fearing people like Cornelius and his family to be dogs. I guarantee that.
Nonetheless, the fact remains that Gentiles in time past, were excluded from Christ's first ministry (Ephesians 2:11-12)
We've seen the examples where Christ explicitly included Gentiles (with Israel irrelevant), and no examples where He explicitly excluded them.
So who excluded them?
I have provided Ephesians 2:11-12 for your reference.
That at that time
- ye were without Christ,
- being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel,
- and strangers from the covenants of promise,
- having no hope,
- and without God in the world:
Gentiles were included by Christ, as we've seen.
Gentiles were also included by God in the true believers of OT Israel ((Genesis 17:12; Exodus 12:48-49; Leviticus 19:34; Leviticus 24:22; et al).
Paul knew of both.
So who had excluded the Ephesian Gentiles, and why?
For example, Bart Ehrmann uses this as proof that Paul didn't write 2 Thess. He claims 1 Thess presents a Paul who believes in imminency (thief in the night passage),
But know this, that if the goodman of the house had known in what watch the thief would come, he would have watched, and would not have suffered his house to be broken up. (Matthew 24:43)
And if he shall come in the second watch, or come in the third watch,
and find them so, blessed are those servants. (Luke 12:38)
Watch therefore, for ye know neither the day nor the hour wherein the Son of man cometh. (Matthew 25:13)
Watch ye therefore: for ye know not when the master of the house cometh, at even, or at midnight, or at the cockcrowing, or in the morning: (Mark 13:35)
Again, what you really meant to say in your first paragraph is
I think Gentiles were included by Christ, based on my interpretation of what I read.
Paul obviously did not agree with you, that is why he wrote Ephesians 2:11-12, under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit.
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