We're talking about Daniel 7:13 here. You are trying to say that a vast majority of scholars say that Daniel 7:13 is about Jesus coming from heaven rather than to heaven? Give me some kind of evidence to back that up. I don't believe that is true at all.
Edit: After doing some checking on many different commentaries and quotes of known scholars, I can see that what you said is definitely not true that a vast majority of scholars would say that "Jesus coming with the clouds" in and of itself, means He is coming from heaven. He came with the clouds of heaven TO heaven at His ascension and will come with the clouds of heaven FROM heaven at His return. THAT is what a vast majority of scholars in history believe. Also, a vast majority of scholars have not believed that Daniel 7:13 is about the second coming of Christ. Many have believed, like me, that it's about His ascension. Probably for the same reason as I do. It obviously refers to Him coming TO heaven in God the Father's presence and not to Him coming FROM heaven.
Ellicott: In this verse the judgment is supposed to have already taken place upon earth, and the Son of man comes in the clouds to claim His kingdom.
Matthew Henry: The great event foretold in this passage, is Christ's glorious coming, to destroy every antichristian power, and to render his own kingdom universal upon earth.
Jaimieson-Fausset-Brown (your view): He "comes to the Ancient of days" to be invested with the kingdom. Compare Ps 110:2: "The Lord shall send the rod of thy strength (Messiah) out of Zion." This investiture was at His ascension "with the clouds of heaven."
Gill:
Saadiah interprets them of the angels of heaven, with which he will be attended:
the Messiah,
as most Christian interpreters, and even the Jews themselves, both ancient and modern, allow. In the ancient book of Zohar (u) it is said,
"in the times of the Messiah, Israel shall be one people, to the Lord, and he shall make them one nation in the earth, and they shall rule above and below; as it is written, "behold, one like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven"; this is the King Messiah of whom it is written, "and in the days of these kings shall the God of heaven, set up a kingdom which shall never be destroyed", &c....
and
came to the Ancient of days; his divine Father, from whom, as man and Mediator, he receives his mediatorial kingdom, is invested with it, and insisted it, to it; see Revelation 5:7 this is not to be understood of his first coming in the flesh, which was from his Father, and not to him; nor of his ascension to heaven, exaltation and session at the right hand of God, when he indeed received the kingdom from the Father, and was made and declared Lord and Christ;
but this seems to respect what shall be upon the destruction of the fourth beast, when Christ shall receive and take to himself his great power, and reign, and more visibly appear by his Father's designation and appointment, and his open glory, to be King and Lord over all..
Please note what I underlined above concerning my statement about the "majority of scholars." Since I don't have all of the commentaries immediately available I'm only going on what I've read through the years. Beyond that, as I told you, the context is the coming and inception of the Kingdom of God, which is eschatological. It involves the destruction of Antichrist and the authority Jesus was given in order to bring this about.
Yes, there are those who feel this has to be about Jesus' Ascension--I'm not arguing there are no proponents of this view. Just the vast majority of scholars and commentaries *I've read* viewed this as eschatological, ie the Coming of Christ's Kingdom.
Since I tie this verse to most all of NT eschatology about the Son of Man or about the Coming of Christ I see it all as eschatological. Jesus' Coming with the clouds in the New Testament is eschatological--no question about that. The book of Revelation is eschatological--no question about that. Who doesn't think the Olivet Discourse, with its coming of the Son of Man with the clouds, is not eschatological? To me it is all too obvious that Matthew is talking about the same event as mentioned in Dan 7.13!
The only thing that concerns us here is what the throne room scene means, and when it takes place? It could simply be what initiates Jesus' 2nd Coming, when he comes with the clouds and with angels. It could be a paranthetical explanation as to what Jesus' Coming with the clouds means, or an explanation of the authority he obtains in order to Come.
It makes no sense to me that Jesus "comes with thte clouds" in order to appear in heaven. If he is in the clouds he is already in heaven! He "comes" with the clouds meaning he *descends* from heaven. Paul explicitly described this 2nd Coming as a "descent" from heaven, and not an appearing before a heavenly throne.
Maybe Jesus appears before the Ancient of Days on his way down, in a micro-second? I don't know. I understand the problem. But I don't understand your careless accusations? I point above to scholars who agree with my position--do you call them "liars" too?