Never Meant to be saved

5thKingdom

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We are all aware of the CONTEXT of the Cross:


BEFORE Jesus Came God was saving ONLY the Jews
AFTER Jesus Came God was saving BOTH Jew and Gentile
------------
Jew and Gentile = "the world"
God promised to save "the world"... Jew and Gentile.


God never promised to save EVERYONE in the world.
God never promised salvation was available for EVERYMAN.
Because the Bible does never teaches of a Universal Atonement.


Mar 4:11-12
And he said unto them, Unto you it is given to know the mystery of the Kingdom of God: but unto them that are without,
all these things are done in parables: That seeing they may see,
and not perceive; and hearing they may hear, and not understand;
lest at any time they should be converted, and their sins should be forgiven them.


(1) Jesus PROMISED some men were NEVER MEANT to "perceive"... how could they ever be saved?

(2) Jesus PROMISED some men were NEVER MEANT to "understand"... how can they be saved?

(3) Jesus PROMISED some men were NEVER MEANT to "be converted"... how are they saved?

(4) Jesus PROMISED some men were NEVER MEANT to have their sins forgiven... WOW!


Who can deny what Jesus PROMISED?
Where is there a Universal Atonement in the Gospel of Christ?
Some men were NEVER MEANT to be saved.


/
 

Maria Billingsley

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We are all aware of the CONTEXT of the Cross:


BEFORE Jesus Came God was saving ONLY the Jews
AFTER Jesus Came God was saving BOTH Jew and Gentile
------------
Jew and Gentile = "the world"
God promised to save "the world"... Jew and Gentile.


God never promised to save EVERYONE in the world.
God never promised salvation was available for EVERYMAN.
Because the Bible does never teaches of a Universal Atonement.


Mar 4:11-12
And he said unto them, Unto you it is given to know the mystery of the Kingdom of God: but unto them that are without,
all these things are done in parables: That seeing they may see,
and not perceive; and hearing they may hear, and not understand;
lest at any time they should be converted, and their sins should be forgiven them.


(1) Jesus PROMISED some men were NEVER MEANT to "perceive"... how could they ever be saved?

(2) Jesus PROMISED some men were NEVER MEANT to "understand"... how can they be saved?

(3) Jesus PROMISED some men were NEVER MEANT to "be converted"... how are they saved?

(4) Jesus PROMISED some men were NEVER MEANT to have their sins forgiven... WOW!


Who can deny what Jesus PROMISED?
Where is there a Universal Atonement in the Gospel of Christ?
Some men were NEVER MEANT to be saved.


/
Seems you are conflating two issues.
Salvation with no belief ( Universalism) and salvation for all who believe (The Gospel). Blessings.
 
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5thKingdom

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John 3:16


As the OP explains...
ONLY "His Sheep" CAN "believe"...
so your "proof" text means nothing more that


God loved the world (Both Jew and Gentile
that whoever are part of "His Sheep" shall believe and be saved.


You must ASSUME the passage says ALL MEN can believe...
that is ADDING to the text.


The Bible NEVER says that... in fact it teaches the opposite,
that NO MAN will ever "seek God" before regeneration... no, not even one [Rom 3:10-11]


Now... if you want to prove that ALL MEN can believe...
you will need a different passage


Joh 3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.


Jim
 
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5thKingdom

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Seems you are conflating two issues.
Salvation with no belief ( Universalism) and salvation for all who believe (The Gospel). Blessings.

There is no such thing as salvation with no belief.
So that is a non-starter.

I don't know what YOU think "Universalism" is...
I said the Bible does not teach a "Universal Atonement".
Meaning Christ PAID for the sins of everyman ever born.

Of course the Bible does not teach such a thing.
If you disagree provide a SCRIPTURE that shows a Universal Atonement..

Jim
 
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5thKingdom

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What do you see as the purpose for those not saved and how God would feel about them?


How does God feel about those who are not elect... He hates them


What is the PURPOSE of those not saved...
you have the question backward. ALL MEN are born spiritually DEAD.
It is God's Good Pleasure to "elect" to save SOME men.


The Bible is clear. The world consists of 3 peoples
(1) the saved "wheat/sheep" in the Church (sown by God) and destined to eternal life.
(2) the unsaved "tares/goats" in the Church (sown by Satan) and destined to eternal torment.
(3) all the lost souls OUTSIDE the church, also "children of Satan" destined to Hell.


Jim
 
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linux.poet

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I have some questions about your soteriology that you have expressed here. I hope that you will be able to answer them.
BEFORE Jesus Came God was saving ONLY the Jews
How does your soteriology deal with Gentile converts to Judaism before Christ came? Are they unsaved?
God promised to save "the world"... Jew and Gentile.

Who can deny what Jesus PROMISED?
I think promise is a strong word here that may not apply. How would you respond to the idea that Jesus wasn't making a promise in Mark 4:11-12 and John 3:16, but was rather describing a reality?
How does God feel about those who are not elect... He hates them
Is it possible to be angry with someone without hating them?
 
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bling

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How does God feel about those who are not elect... He hates them


What is the PURPOSE of those not saved...
you have the question backward. ALL MEN are born spiritually DEAD.
It is God's Good Pleasure to "elect" to save SOME men.


The Bible is clear. The world consists of 3 peoples
(1) the saved "wheat/sheep" in the Church (sown by God) and destined to eternal life.
(2) the unsaved "tares/goats" in the Church (sown by Satan) and destined to eternal torment.
(3) all the lost souls OUTSIDE the church, also "children of Satan" destined to Hell.


Jim
Do you believe: Before God saved the lost elect there was no difference between the lost non-elect and the lost elect, so why would God not hate or Love everyone the same?
 
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Maria Billingsley

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There is no such thing as salvation with no belief.
So that is a non-starter.

I don't know what YOU think "Universalism" is...
I said the Bible does not teach a "Universal Atonement".
Meaning Christ PAID for the sins of everyman ever born.

Of course the Bible does not teach such a thing.
If you disagree provide a SCRIPTURE that shows a Universal Atonement..

Jim
Jim. I have no idea what your soteriology is , it sounds like Calvinism which I whole heartedly disagree with. So I will now bow out of this thread.
Be blessed.
 
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Blade

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Hi and thank you but "BEFORE Jesus Came God was saving ONLY the Jews, AFTER Jesus Came God was saving BOTH Jew and Gentile"

They were in the OT to take what He said to the world. When God saved them out of Egypt he told them if there are some among you that are no of you treat them as if they were born of you "And if a stranger dwells with you in your land, you shall not mistreat him. The stranger who dwells among you shall be to you as one born among you, and you shall love him as yourself; for you were strangers in the land of Egypt: I am the LORD your God." The promise to Abraham.. who was he? There was no Israel. So if Abraham could number the stars.. just Israel would not begin to touch how many there are.

That alone should tell you how many will be saved for God can not lie. He picked a people to take His word to the world. He said it in John for God so loved the WORLD. That is not based in time but out side time. There is one vine many branches and no one can tell a original branch vs grafted in.
 
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5thKingdom

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Hi and thank you but "BEFORE Jesus Came God was saving ONLY the Jews, AFTER Jesus Came God was saving BOTH Jew and Gentile"

That is the subject of the discussion

They were in the OT to take what He said to the world. When God saved them out of Egypt he told them if there are some among you that are no of you treat them as if they were born of you "And if a stranger dwells with you in your land, you shall not mistreat him. The stranger who dwells among you shall be to you as one born among you, and you shall love him as yourself; for you were strangers in the land of Egypt: I am the LORD your God." The promise to Abraham.. who was he? There was no Israel. So if Abraham could number the stars.. just Israel would not begin to touch how many there are.

That does not address the subject of the discussion

That alone should tell you how many will be saved for God can not lie. He picked a people to take His word to the world. He said it in John for God so loved the WORLD. That is not based in time but out side time. There is one vine many branches and no one can tell a original branch vs grafted in.

That does not address the subject of the discussion


/
 
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5thKingdom

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5thKingdom said:
There is no such thing as salvation with no belief.
So that is a non-starter.

I don't know what YOU think "Universalism" is...
I said the Bible does not teach a "Universal Atonement".
Meaning Christ PAID for the sins of everyman ever born.

Of course the Bible does not teach such a thing.
If you disagree provide a SCRIPTURE that shows a Universal Atonement..

Jim


Jim. I have no idea what your soteriology is , it sounds like Calvinism which I whole heartedly disagree with.


Why must you try to identify what the Bible teaches with a man?
The POINT is not what Calvin thought but what the Bible says.


What I said above is not about Calvin, it's about the Gospel of the Bible.
It is the Bible (not Calvin) that establishes there "is not such thing as salvation with no belief"


And it is the Bible (not Calvin) that establishes Christ's Atonement was limited to ONLY "His Sheep"


/
 
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5thKingdom

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5thKingdom said:
How does God feel about those who are not elect... He hates them

What is the PURPOSE of those not saved...
you have the question backward. ALL MEN are born spiritually DEAD.
It is God's Good Pleasure to "elect" to save SOME men.

The Bible is clear. The world consists of 3 peoples
(1) the saved "wheat/sheep" in the Church (sown by God) and destined to eternal life.
(2) the unsaved "tares/goats" in the Church (sown by Satan) and destined to eternal torment.
(3) all the lost souls OUTSIDE the church, also "children of Satan" destined to Hell.


Do you believe: Before God saved the lost elect there was no difference between the lost non-elect and the lost elect, s


All men are born spiritually DEAD and captive to Satan, they are within Satan's "Kingdom"

God elects some men to save. He then translates them FROM Satan's Kingdom INTO His Eternal "Kingdom of God"
they are destined to eternal life as PART of "His Sheep"

Those men God does NOT elect remain in Satan's Kingdom and are destined to eternal torment



o why would God not hate or Love everyone the same?


Rom 9:21-23
Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?
What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath
fitted to destruction
: And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy,
which he had afore prepared unto glory,


Rom 9:15-16
For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion.
So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy.



/
 
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Maria Billingsley

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And it is the Bible (not Calvin) that establishes Christ's Atonement was limited to ONLY "His Sheep"
Limited to those who believe. Those sheep chose to believe and therefore become the elect. Blessings.
 
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I believe the Christian knows salvation but the non Christian does not. Still, some non Christians will be saved but only God knows this. It is a false assurance to tell the non Christian everything will be ok but it is wrong to assume every individual is condemned.

In John 3:16-21, God clearly desires the salvation of all but warns that unbelief is condemnation. Still, the Lord says there are individuals who of good will that God will lead to the light. We do not know though only God does and we can take Romans 9:14-18 as a guideline. The conclusion to this, I think, can be found in John 5:22-30 where the Lord testifies to the fate of good vs evil.

I believe St. Paul clearly outlines the understanding of the standard of the Lord’s salvation and judgment in Romans 1:1-32, Romans 2:1-29, and Romans 3:1-31. I believe Romans 1 & 3 the emphasis is on the top down understanding of sinning humanity in that all are sinners who face judgment. In Romans 2 the understanding that there are virtuous people within sinning humanity but only God knows ( the core of this is in Romans 2:6-16, I believe). This, I believe, is the uncertainty of the law ( whether of Moses or the law Noah knew ( Genesis 9:1-17).

I believe from this we can have a more hopeful and still truthful framework when we (for ex.) proceed to read the rest of Romans. Surely there is a broad base of the Lord’s mercy but there is an unforgivable sin ( Matthew 12:31-32) etc.) and personally I try to remember to the Lord’s commandments and warnings to not be a Pharisee ( Matthew 7:1-12, Matthew 7:21-23).

I have found the books: Mere Christianity and The Abolition of Man by the great C.S. Lewis to be helpful in Biblical understanding.
 
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Mark Quayle

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Limited to those who believe. Those sheep chose to believe and therefore become the elect. Blessings.
You've got it reversed. It's amazing how we can bend God to accommodate our point of view. Why do you insist on self-determination?
 
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bling

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5thKingdom said:
How does God feel about those who are not elect... He hates them

What is the PURPOSE of those not saved...
you have the question backward. ALL MEN are born spiritually DEAD.
It is God's Good Pleasure to "elect" to save SOME men.

The Bible is clear. The world consists of 3 peoples
(1) the saved "wheat/sheep" in the Church (sown by God) and destined to eternal life.
(2) the unsaved "tares/goats" in the Church (sown by Satan) and destined to eternal torment.
(3) all the lost souls OUTSIDE the church, also "children of Satan" destined to Hell.





All men are born spiritually DEAD and captive to Satan, they are within Satan's "Kingdom"

God elects some men to save. He then translates them FROM Satan's Kingdom INTO His Eternal "Kingdom of God"
they are destined to eternal life as PART of "His Sheep"

Those men God does NOT elect remain in Satan's Kingdom and are destined to eternal torment






Rom 9:21-23
Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?
What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath
fitted to destruction
: And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy,
which he had afore prepared unto glory,


Rom 9:15-16
For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion.
So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy.



/
None of your comments address the questions I asked: Do you believe: Before God saved the lost elect there was no difference between the lost non-elect and the lost elect, so why would God not hate or Love everyone the same?

I am asking what: “You believe” the “why” behind what you believe your God is doing. Do you believe your God is totally arbitrary and/or inconsistent?

I will not just pull a few verses out Ro. 9 since it takes the whole chapter plus the context of three chapters and the context of Romans.
Romans 9

Paul uses two teaching methods throughout Romans even secular philosophy classes will use Romans as the best example of these methods. Paul does an excellent job of building one premise on the previous premises to develop his final conclusions. Paul uses an ancient form of rhetoric known as diatribe (imaginary debate) asking questions and most of the time giving a strong “By no means” and then goes on to explain “why not”. Paul’s method goes beyond just a general diatribe and follows closely to the diatribes used in the individual laments in the Psalms and throughout the Old Testament, which the Jewish Christians would have known extensively. These “questions or comments” are given by an “imaginary” student making it more a dialog with the readers (students) and not just a “sermon”.

The main topic repeated extensively in Romans is the division in the Christian house churches in Rome between the Jews and Gentile Christians. You can just look up how many times Jews and gentiles are referred to see this as a huge issue.

The main question (a diatribe question) in Romans 9 Paul addresses is God being fair or just Rms. 9: 14 What then shall we say? Is God unjust? Not at all!

This will take some explaining, since just prior in Romans 9, Paul went over some history of God’s dealings with the Israelites that sounds very “unjust” like “loving Jacob and hating Esau” before they were born, but remember in all of Paul’s diatribes he begins before, just after or before and just after with strong support for the wrong answer (this makes it more of a debate and giving the opposition the first shot as done in all diatribes).

Some “Christians” do not seem to understand How Paul uses diatribes and think since he just showed God being “unjust” and saying God is “not unjust” that God has a special God definition of “just”, making God “just” by His standard and appearing totally unjust by human standards. God is not a hypocrite and does not redefine what He told us to be true.

Who in Rome would be having a “problem” with God choosing to work with Isaac and Jacob instead of Ishmael and Esau? Would the Jewish Christian have a problem with this or would it be the Gentile Christians?

If God treaded you as privileged and special would you have a problem or would you have a problem if you were treated seemingly as common and others were treated with honor for no apparent reason?

This is the issue and Paul will explain over the rest of Romans 9-11.

Paul is specific with the issue Rms. 9: 19 One of you will say to me: “Then why does God still blame us? For who is able to resist his will?”

The Jews were created in a special honorable position that would bring forth the Messiah and everyone else was common in comparison (the Gentiles).

How do we know Paul is specifically addressing the Jew/Gentile issue? Rms. 9: 30 What then shall we say? That the Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have obtained it, a righteousness that is by faith; 31 but the people of Israel, who pursued the law as the way of righteousness, have not attained their goal. 32 Why not? Because they pursued it not by faith but as if it were by works. They stumbled over the stumbling stone.

Paul is showing from the position of being made “common” vessels by God the Gentiles had an advantage over the Israelites (vessels of honor) that had the Law, since the Law became a stumbling stone to them. They both needed faith to rely on God’s Love to forgive them.

Without going into the details of Romans 9-11 we conclude with this diatribe question: Romans 11: 11 Again I ask: Did they stumble so as to fall beyond recovery? Not at all! Rather, because of their transgression, salvation has come to the Gentiles to make Israel envious. 12 But if their transgression means riches for the world, and their loss means riches for the Gentiles, how much greater riches will their full inclusion bring!

The common vessels (gentiles) and the vessels of honor (Jews) are equal individually in what is really significant when it comes to salvation, so God is not being unjust or unfair with either group.

If there is still a question about who is being addressed in this section of Rms. 9-11, Paul tells us: Rms. 11: 13 I am talking to you Gentiles. Inasmuch as I am the apostle to the Gentiles, I take pride in my ministry 14 in the hope that I may somehow arouse my own people to envy and save some of them.

Rm 9:22 What if God, although choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath—prepared for destruction?

This verse is not saying all the “vessels” created for a “common purpose” were created for destruction (they were not made from the start by the Potter “clay pigeons”). Everything that leaves the potter’s shop is of great quality. Those vessels for destruction can come from either the common group or the honor group, but God is being patient with them that will eventually be destroyed. The vessels God does develop great wrath against, will be readied for destruction, but how did they become worthy of destruction since they left the potter’s shop with his mark on them? Any vessel (honorable or common) that becomes damaged is not worthy of the potters signature and He would want it destroyed.

To understand this as Common vessels and special vessels look at the same idea using the same Greek words of Paul in 2 Tim 2: 20. There Paul even points out the common can become the honored vessel.

Just because Paul uses a Potter as being God in his analogy and Jerimiah uses a Potter as being God in his analogy, does not mean the analogies are conveying the exact same analogy. Jerimiah is talking about clay on the potter’s wheel being change while still being malleable clay (which fits the changing of Israel), but Paul is talking about two pots (vessels) so they cannot both be Israel, the clay is the same for both and the clay is not changing the outcome of the pot. The two pots (vessels) are completed and a person is asking “Why did you make me like this”, so it is about “how a person is made (born)” and not a nation.

Since Jerimiah talks only about one pot on the wheel changing and Paul is talking about two kinds of completed pots (vessels), who are the two different pots?



Paul is saying in 2 Tim 2: 21 even after leaving the shop the common vessels can cleanse themselves and thus become instruments for a special purpose. So, who is the common vessel and who is the special vessel in this analogy?

That is a short explanation, since you really need to study all of Romans especially chapters 9, 10 and 11. Also please look at individual laments in the Psalms and diatribes in general, I really cut those short.
 
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Maria Billingsley

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You've got it reversed. It's amazing how we can bend God to accommodate our point of view. Why do you insist on self-determination?
It is not my point of view, it is the non- Calvinist view.
Blessings.
 
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Mark Quayle

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It is not my point of view, it is the non- Calvinist view.
Blessings.
Whether you meant to or not, you just answered that self-determinism is the non-Calvinist view. That's rather condemning of the non-Calvinist view, I think.
 
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