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I trusting in the flesh? I trust solely on the sacrifice of Christ on the cross, dealing with the sin of the world for my salvation, you?
You are saying the promise of salvation from sin to the people in Matt 1:21 is restricted to the ethnic jews. So you said its promised to them based upon their flesh, i assume their physical , natural relationship to Abraham.
For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation to all men, instructing us to deny ungodliness and worldly desires and to live sensibly, righteously and godly in the present age, looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Christ Jesus, who gave Himself for us to redeem us from every lawless deed, and to purify for Himself a people for His own possession, zealous for good deeds.
That's quite a strong accusation you hold against many (if not the majority of ?) Christian scholars.
Whose sins will be dealt with? Rather it says whom (what people) the Messiah has come for to deliver from sins.
You still trust in the flesh for salvation, as long as you restrict His People in Matt 1:21 to ethnic jews.
You keep saying it. I still don't understand why.
Yes Jesus was first sent to the jews, I never said nothing against that. I said you are trusting in the flesh since you say " His People" in Matt 1:21, though He went to the jews first for ministry, His Saving Purpose was beyond that Jn 3:17
I was trying to say much the same as you appear to have said in your post 260 and have also said below my response
Of course His saving purpose was beyond the Jews. I never said anything else. The Jews were the first part of the plan, and Matt 1:21 is a prophecy of the first part. That is what I am saying and even the Jews were the first part, Jesus still saved some Gentiles during this first phase.
Okay if you understand that Jesus was sent to save a world of people, not just one ethnicity, then its folly for you to limit His Saving Purpose in Matt 1:21 to just ethnic jews. If you do that, then you are trusting in the flesh.
I don't think it's folly since this specific prophecy in Matt 1:21 was to a Jew and about the Jews and how the Messiah was relating to them. The angel could have added to Joseph: "He will also save the Gentiles from their sins", but for some reason this was not to be revealed to Joseph at this time. Maybe it wasn't of importance for Joseph to know or maybe it would have brought on more questions than answers, since he was waiting for a savior of the Jews or maybe it just wasn't the right time. Who knows? And no one really knew until after the crucifixion that Gentiles were included into the plan of salvation.
Think whether you need to say this. Scripture doesn't record what the angel didn't say to Jesus. Meantime Joseph certainly believed the gentiles would be saved because it's in the OT. Of course Joseph still had questions of some kind. He learned when Jesus at 12 said "I must be about My Father's business".
I'm not sure you understand what I and Brightfame have been discussing. It's what the prophecy of the angel to Joseph in Matt 1:21 say, if it's a prophecy particularily about how this Jesus child is the savior of the Jewish nation or of all elect people, including elect Gentiles. There is no question Jesus was sent to the world for all men, however my argument is that in Matt 1:21 "His people" is a reference to the Jewish people. God bless!
Yes its folly. You base Salvation from sin on the ethnicity of a jew.
It is incidental and was practical, that revelation was first shown to a clan and a group of tribes to be able to pass it on further. Dispensations 1a and 1b in a nutshell! ;-)
