Well, the website address you posited above is not the correct answer. This is however
"As many as had been APPOINTED TO ETERNAL LIFE believed"
Why did you feel you needed to turn to an anti-Calvinist website to answer that simple question

Though I didn't disagree with everything it said, the "meat" of their answer amounted to little more than, "
we can't really believe that's what St. Luke actually meant, can we?"
They go on to say: "
Why not assume the more mundane statement that these Gentiles were really eager in their hearts to have a share in eternal life, in contrast to the Jews who chafed at the good news?"
That the Gentiles were "eager" is clear, but my question (in answer to their question) would be this, if the "mundane" understanding is all that St. Luke intended here, why did he write what he did, the way he did? Why would he choose to write something that forces his readers to "bypass" or "overlook" part of what he said to be able to get at his intended meaning
Anything is possible, I suppose, and I would discard it out-of-hand if it was the only place in the Bible that taught such things, but it's not (i.e.
Ephesians 1:4-6).
One of my purposes in trying to get you to answer my fill in the blank question was to hopefully move us back towards Hammster's more important and so far unanswered question/point from the previous thread page .. and I see you already went there .. so, terrific
MERRY CHRISTMAS!
--David