I have never denied it’s faith so I’m not sure why you brought this up. All I’m quoting is Romans 11:25 that a partial hardening has come upon Israel, until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in.
And, this Israel Paul is referring to is the physical offspring/Jews who once rejected Christ and who will later receive faith and be saved.
Paul did not say that because you are reading into Scripture. Read the verse again:
Rom 11:25-27
(25) For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of
this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits;
that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in.
(26)
And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob:
(27) For this is my covenant unto them, when I shall take away their sins.
This blindness in part, or harness of Israel's heart will continue throughout the New Covenant period until the fullness of the Gentiles are come in. And we read here, "
..and so (in this way) all Israel shall be saved as it is written," by the Deliverer out of Zion that shall turn away ungodliness from them.
Some Theologians attempt to rewrite verse 26 to make it read, "
after all the Gentiles come in, Then all the nation of Israel is going to be Saved." But even on the face of it, that makes absolutely no sense. All Israel will never be saved, if that 'all' means the literal nation as some have alleged. That is totally against everything scripture declares. There is only going to be a remnant of Jacob saved, as has already been stated in the scriptures. It doesn't say most of Israel, it doesn't say the majority of Israel, it says "
so all Israel shall be saved."
The
second point is that some theologians who realize that it certainly cannot really mean all and be referring literally to the nation Israel, claim that it doesn't really mean literally "all Israel shall be Saved." And these are inevitably those who insist that they take the scriptures very literally. They interpret this to only mean that most of the nation Israel shall be saved. Curiously, they want this literally to refer to the nation Israel, but they don't want it literally mean all Israel. Moreover, this only drives them deeper into confusion and rationalization, because it clearly says when the fullness of the Gentiles have come in, so all Israel shall be saved. If that all means just a remnant, then what is the need for this future salvation program? For Paul has stated earlier in this chapter that a remnant of Jews are even now coming in. And if the 'all' here does not mean a remnant, but the whole nation, then it is a deviation from the immutability of God in what He has said, and what has always been. It's an aberration, since the whole nation of Israel has never been saved. The scriptures are not subject to arbitrary or capricious private interpretations. While it is very true that the word "all" is often qualified in scripture to mean "many," there is nothing in the context of this chapter or verse to validate the view that it refers to most of the physical nation of Israel. For Gentiles are not grafted into a physical or literal middle eastern nation of Israel. They are grafted into the Covenant with Israel and remain in their own nations.
The
third point is, though many Theologians often take license to declare that it says "
and then" all Israel "will" be saved, it doesn't really say that at all. Speaking of Israel it says part of it is blinded until the fullness of Gentiles come in (to Israel), and
so all Israel shall be Saved. This is another very important distinction that is often merely glossed over by those who do not want to accept what is written here. In other words, the context of these scriptures show it is saying that this is how all Israel shall be saved. It will be by some Jewish branches being broken off, and some Gentile grafted being ingrafted in. And when the fullness of these Gentiles are come in, "so" all Israel shall be saved. The all Israel is all of these who finally end up in this Covenant tree, Israel. The Jew first, and then the Gentiles, both in one tree, and both of that very same body.
If God had wanted to use the word 'then' (meaning afterward) there, He would most certainly have inspired it to be used there. There is a perfectly good Greek word that is translated 'then' [
epeita], but God does not inspire that word to be used here. The word here is the Greek word [
houtos], an adverb, meaning 'the manner' in which they shall be saved. By all means, get a Greek lexicon and check this out yourself. So means "
thusly" or "
in this manner/fashion/wise." This word does not illustrate a future tense time frame at all, it is simply showing the manner in which Israel is saved. This word [
houtos] doesn't mean 'then' and is
never translated then. And so it is obviously incorrect to read this verse 'as if' it means then, or 'as if' it means after the Gentiles come in. Here are just a few examples of this word's use to demonstrate its unambiguous meaning.
