[font=Arial, Geneva, Helvetica] "1 Do you indeed decree what is right, you gods? Do you judge people fairly? 2 No, in your hearts you devise wrongs; your hands deal out violence on earth. 3 The wicked go astray from the womb; they err from their birth, speaking lies. 4 They have venom like the venom of a serpent, like the deaf adder that stops its ear, 5 so that it does not hear the voice of charmers or of the cunning enchanter. [/font]
[font=Arial, Geneva, Helvetica] 6 O God, break the teeth in their mouths; tear out the fangs of the young lions, O Lord! 7 Let them vanish like water that runs away; like grass let them be trodden down and wither. 8 Let them be like the snail that dissolves into slime; like the untimely birth that never sees the sun. 9 Sooner than your pots can feel the heat of thorns, whether green or ablaze, may he sweep them away! 10 The righteous will rejoice when they see vengeance done; they will bathe their feet in the blood of the wicked. 11 People will say, "Surely there is a reward for the righteous; surely there is a God who judges on earth."
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[font=Arial, Geneva, Helvetica]There is Psalm 58 in it's entirety. Let's take a look at this chapter to see if we can determine whether David was speaking literally or figuratively in this passage. David begins by addressing a question to these so-called gods. Now, there are two possibilites here: either David was speaking to the pagan gods of the surrounding tribes, or he was addressing some other individuals as gods. I like the way the New American Standard translation has rendered this verse because it makes verse 1 a lot more clear. [/font][font=Arial, Geneva, Helvetica]"1 Do you indeed speak righteousness, O gods? Do you judge uprightly, O sons of men?" David is using a common Hebraic poetical structure here, where the second statement rephrases the first statement in a different manner. This use of parallel statements is common in the Psalms. Therefore, we know that David is addressing the rulers and kings of the other nations. He is questioning their judgements and it is in verse 2 that he gives us the answer to his question.
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[font=Arial, Geneva, Helvetica]In vese 2 David tells the reader that these leaders do not walk righteously or uprightly but that they introduce violence all over the earth by their very hands. They are freely committing criminal acts and they are not walking according to God's moral law, therefore they are to be condemned and reprimanded in the most possible language. It is exactly this that David does beginning in verse 3.
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[font=Arial, Geneva, Helvetica]So far there is mutual agreement as to what David is doing in this Psalm, but beginning in verse 3 he employs extremely strong and vivid language to make his point. Since the people being addressed in this Psalm are the unjust and wicked rulers of the nations, it is quite obvious that these are the people that David has mind throughout the entire Psalm. David doesn't begin the Psalm by speaking about a distinct group of people, and then unaware to the reader, change the focus of his thought on a whim. No, the wicked being spoken about in verse 3 are the rulers that David addressed in verses 1 and 2. Furthermore, is David speaking ultra-literally here or using hyperbolic and figurative language to make a point that these individuals have been wicked from their youth?
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[font=Arial, Geneva, Helvetica]There really are no lexical or grammatical clues in verse 3 to lead the reader in one direction over the other. David says that they have been estranged from the womb, liars from birth, and they have gone astray. Although, one really can't make a judgement quite yet, one could ask, How does David know that these individuals spoke lies from the womb? Was David there when they were born to witness them doing such a thing? I don't think anybody wants to imply such a thing so it makes more sense to see David writing these lines to describe the great wickedness and evil of these rulers and not to talk about their activity as newborn infants. Again, David employs the same poetical parellel structure to reiterate his point. The second statement just restates the first in a different manner and reiterates David's main contention.
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[font=Arial, Geneva, Helvetica]In verse 4, we get our first real indicator that David is using figurative language. He compares these rulers to snakes that have deadly venom. If this passage is to be understood as literal, then is David really saying that the wicked rulers of the nations have the same deadly venemous substance as serpents? Of course not! He is comparing their dispotion and actions to those of a crafty serpent. The twofold use of the word like shows that David is using a similie to compare the actions and demeanor of the wicked men to that of serpents. He isn't saying they are serpents, but he is comparing them to such to make a point. Furthermore, in verse 5 David says that these men have become like the serpent who turns his ear away from his charmer. In other words, they have chosen to turn their ear away from God. David is in no way implying that there is some musical charmer playing the lute trying to calm these rulers like such men did snakes. What he is saying is that in their obstinancy and rebellion they will not listen to God's voice who wants to cure them of this evil disposition. These men have intentionally made themselves deaf to God's pleas and thus, work iniquity and unrighteousness of their own accord.
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[font=Arial, Geneva, Helvetica]In the next few verses David gives us his prayer to God regarding these men. He asks God to smash their teeth and break their jaws, and now he compares these men to lions. If this verse were taken literally one would come away with the impression that David is asking God to break the teeth of lions. Poor lions, what did they do to deserve such a harsh punishment? The lions mentioned by David are the same rulers mentioned in verses 1 and 2, and the same ones compared to serpents in verses 5 and 6. In verses 8 and 9 David illustrates a few ways in which he would like God to deal with these individuals. In verse 8 he wants them to vanish like water flowing away, and to wither like grass withers. In both instances the use of the word like indicates a similie or comparison. This is figurative language plain and simple. David is describing a possible punishment by comparing it to an actual situation.
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[font=Arial, Geneva, Helvetica]In verse 9 David talks about another possible punishment. Dissolving like snails, or having never been born. Again, David uses the word like two times, a sign this is figurative language. If David meant the second punishment in a literal sense, this would involve God reversing the order of events in time that have occurred and making it so that the wicked rulers were never born, or died while they were in the womb. Such an assertion is folly and it doesn't flow with the natural reading of the text.
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[font=Arial, Geneva, Helvetica]In verse 10 David tells God to remove these men from the scene like how a whirlwhind removes brambles and thorns. The word suddenly, shows that David desires this to happen without their expectation, and to be done very quickly. Once again, David describes this chain of events by comparing it to an actual event, that of a whirlwhind blowing away thistles. Finally, in verses 11 and 12 David brings his Psalm to a resolution. He says that when these things occur the just will finally rejoice, and they will bathe their feet in the blood of the wicked. Does anyone honestly believe that David is literally saying here that he is going to bathe in the blood of the wicked? No, this just means that David and the just will triumph and rejoice over their enemies.
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[font=Arial, Geneva, Helvetica]Finally, verse 12 brings the Psalm to a close. David tells the reader that by God accomplishing all of these things, i.e. bringing about the downfall and destruction of the wicked, and upholding and vindicating the just, that people will acknowledge God as the righteous judge that He is and will recognize that their is a reward for the righteous.
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[font=Arial, Geneva, Helvetica]So taken as a whole, should the things contained within this Psalm be taken literally? Obviously not since David is using similies throughout, and since the Psalm is obviously using hyperbole and descriptive language to prove a point, not to state literal facts.
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