How to walk in the Spirit.

[Sidon]

And not being born again, they worked miracles in his name. . .how do you think that works?

It works the same way that 1 Samuel 28:8 works.
It works the same way that caused Paul to make a male witch blind for a season.
It works the same way that Peter walked on water, for a little while, and was not born again yet.

See, there is the HOLY SPIRIT, and then there is the Spirit of the Devil that is the UNHOLY Spirit.

The Devil took Christ to a high place and showed him, all the Christ could have...
That is a VISION.
The Devil has power.
People who worship the devil.....such as 1 Samuel 28:8 , can call on evil spirits.
The male witch, the Sorcerer that Paul blinded in Acts 13.... was capable of performing some demonic spiritual power.

The Reason that a REAL bible, and a REAL Greek Text will say...>"God is A Spirit", and not just "God is Spirit", is because we have to understand the distinction between the "spirits".
See, when the false Greek or a false bible says...>"God is Spirit", instead of God is "A" Spirit, then this GRK text and fake bible are teaching that the Holy Spirit, is no different than the UNHOLY Spirit.

John 4:24

 

[Sidon]

Only if the Hebrews apostasize (drift away) from their profession of faith (Hebrews 2:1; Hebrews 3:1).

IF you actually read Hebrews 10 and then Acts 28, you see that there are unsaved Hebrews in both Epistles, that Paul is dealing with.....
This isn't hard to discover, but what makes is hard for you, is that you have been taught to see those verses, the way you see them.
Blame your teachers, commentaries.
And yes, i know that impulse that came to you, to post back..>"ive had no teachers, except for Greek translators'..
Well, just resist that impulse of the flesh.

 

[Sidon]

So who gives the power to keep the first one?

The Holy Spirit, who is God the Spirit.

Just remember that keeping the commandment does not save you.
Only Jesus saves, and He's not a commandment. He's a Savior.

 

[Clare73]

And the best way to do that it to
leave the "greek" alone and instead study a real Bible.

"when you realize that each translator has a different idea of the greek word..."

So can your teaching be received without accepting just another translator's different idea?

And with so many translators, what makes yours more true than anyone else's?

But by powerful life-transforming revelation I have been given to know the following are true, of which place in your teaching you have yet to show:

". . .be holy in all you do; for it is written: 'Be holy, because I am holy--Lev 11:44-45.' "
(1 Peter 1:15-16)

". . .called to be holy" (1 Corinthians 1:2)

. . .slaves to sin which leads to death. . .slaves to obedience which leads to righteousness."
(Romans 6:16)

"Just as you used to offer parts of your body in slavery to impurity, so now
offer your body in slavery to righteousness leading to holiness." (Romans 6:19)

Now that you have. . .become slaves to God, the benefit you reap leads to holiness. (Romans 6:22)

". . .let us purify ourselves from everthing that contaminates body and spirit,
perfecting (completing) holiness out of reverence for God. (2 Corinthians 7:1)

"Live as children of light (for the fruit of the light consists in all goodness, righteousness and truth)"
(Ephesians 5:9)

". . .pursue righteousness, godliness, faith, love, endurance and gentleness." (1 Timothy 6:11)

". . .pursue righteusness, faith, love and peace. . ." (2 Timothy 2:22)

". . .all Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for. . .training in righteousness." (2 Timothy 3:16)

"God disciplines us for our good that we may share in his holiness. . . discipline produces a harvest of righteousness and peace for those who have been trained by it." (Hebrews 12:10-11)

"die to sin and live for righteousness" (1 Peter 2:24)

"everyone who does what is right has been born of him." (1 John 2:29)

"he who does what is right is righteous. . .he does what is sinful is of the devil," (1 John 3:7)

"Shall we go on sinning so that grace may increase? By no means!" (Romans 6:1)

"Do not let sin reign in your mortal body so that you obey its evil desire." (Romans 6:12)

"Do not offer the parts of your body to sin. . .Offer them to God as instruments of righteousness." (Romans 6:13)

"Without holiness, no one will see the Lord." (Hebrews 12:14)

 

[BNR32FAN]

It works the same way that 1 Samuel 28:8 works.
It works the same way that caused Paul to make a male witch blind for a season.
It works the same way that Peter walked on water, for a little while, and was not born again yet.

See, there is the HOLY SPIRIT, and then there is the Spirit of the Devil that is the UNHOLY Spirit.

The Devil took Christ to a high place and showed him, all the Christ could have...
That is a VISION.
The Devil has power.
People who worship the devil.....such as 1 Samuel 28:8 , can call on evil spirits.
The male witch, the Sorcerer that Paul blinded in Acts 13.... was capable of performing some demonic spiritual power.

The Reason that a REAL bible, and a REAL Greek Text will say...>"God is A Spirit", and not just "God is Spirit", is because we have to understand the distinction between the "spirits".
See, when the false Greek or a false bible says...>"God is Spirit", instead of God is "A" Spirit, then this GRK text and fake bible are teaching that the Holy Spirit, is no different than the UNHOLY Spirit.

John 4:24

The false Greek is a fake Bible? Which Greek text says God is A Spirit?

 

[Sidon]

So can your teaching be received without accepting just another translator's different idea?

And with so many translators, what makes yours more true than anyone else's?

Only accept my Teaching if you trust Paul The Apostle.
If not, go with the Greek.

Also, im not a translator.

 

[Clare73]

IF you actually read Hebrews 10 and then Acts 28, you see that there are unsaved Hebrews in both Epistles, that Paul is dealing with.....

More of your bifurcation of the texts of Scripture. . .

This isn't hard to discover, but what makes is hard for you, is that
you have been taught to see those verses, the way you see them.

As opposed to "the way you see them."

Blame your teachers, commentaries.

Are you not also just a teacher and commentary?

Something is amiss (translate: something is rotten in Denmark).

 

[Clare73]

.

 

[BNR32FAN]

It works the same way that 1 Samuel 28:8 works.
It works the same way that caused Paul to make a male witch blind for a season.
It works the same way that Peter walked on water, for a little while, and was not born again yet.

See, there is the HOLY SPIRIT, and then there is the Spirit of the Devil that is the UNHOLY Spirit.

The Devil took Christ to a high place and showed him, all the Christ could have...
That is a VISION.
The Devil has power.
People who worship the devil.....such as 1 Samuel 28:8 , can call on evil spirits.
The male witch, the Sorcerer that Paul blinded in Acts 13.... was capable of performing some demonic spiritual power.

The Reason that a REAL bible, and a REAL Greek Text will say...>"God is A Spirit", and not just "God is Spirit", is because we have to understand the distinction between the "spirits".
See, when the false Greek or a false bible says...>"God is Spirit", instead of God is "A" Spirit, then this GRK text and fake bible are teaching that the Holy Spirit, is no different than the UNHOLY Spirit.

John 4:24

Which Bible is a “real Bible”?

 

[Clare73]

So can your teaching be received without accepting just another translator's different idea?
And with so many translators, what makes yours more true than anyone else's?
But by powerful life-transforming revelation I have been given to know the following are true, of which place in your teaching you have yet to show:
". . .be holy in all you do; for it is written: 'Be holy, because I am holy--Lev 11:44-45.' "
(1 Peter 1:15-16)

". . .called to be holy" (1 Corinthians 1:2)

. . .slaves to sin which leads to death. . .slaves to obedience which leads to righteousness."
(Romans 6:16)

"Just as you used to offer parts of your body in slavery to impurity, so now
offer your body in slavery to righteousness leading to holiness." (Romans 6:19)

Now that you have. . .become slaves to God, the benefit you reap leads to holiness. (Romans 6:22)

". . .let us purify ourselves from everthing that contaminates body and spirit,
perfecting (completing) holiness out of reverence for God. (2 Corinthians 7:1)

"Live as children of light (for the fruit of the light consists in all goodness, righteousness and truth)"
(Ephesians 5:9)

". . .pursue righteousness, godliness, faith, love, endurance and gentleness." (1 Timothy 6:11)

". . .pursue righteusness, faith, love and peace. . ." (2 Timothy 2:22)

". . .all Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for. . .training in righteousness." (2 Timothy 3:16)

"God disciplines us for our good that we may share in his holiness. . . discipline produces a harvest of righteousness and peace for those who have been trained by it." (Hebrews 12:10-11)

"die to sin and live for righteousness" (1 Peter 2:24)

"everyone who does what is right has been born of him." (1 John 2:29)

"he who does what is right is righteous. . .he does what is sinful is of the devil," (1 John 3:7)

"Shall we go on sinning so that grace may increase? By no means!" (Romans 6:1)

"Do not let sin reign in your mortal body so that you obey its evil desire." (Romans 6:12)

"Do not offer the parts of your body to sin. . .Offer them to God as instruments of righteousness." (Romans 6:13)my Teaching

"Without holiness, no one will see the Lord." (Hebrews 12:14)

Only accept my Teaching if you trust Paul The Apostle.

That's a myth you live with which I have shown to be false in the 12 Scriptures of Paul presented in my post above which by powerful life-transforming revelation I have been given to know are true, and which you have yet to show their place in your "Teaching."

Something is amiss (Translate: Something is rotten in Denmark).

If not, go with the Greek.
Also, im not a translator.

And yet you are in a position to judge translators?

Non-responsive.

 

[Sidon]

Which Bible is a “real Bible”?

Thank you for asking that question.

So instead of me naming a version, let me show you how to find out what isn't a real one.

Use 2 verses to find out.

Now, first before you look.
Lets say you believe that Jesus is God.
Well, at one point , none of us knew this...
So, that information is found in a BIBLE.
So, any bible that takes out that information, is a corrupted bible.
Read 1 Timothy 3:16.

Does your bible say...>"God" was manifested in the FLESH, or does it say "HE", was manifest.
If "he" then your bible is "on hold".

See, if you take GOD out of the verse, you have destroyed the PROOF that this verse is supposed to provide... that teaches that Jesus is God.

See, we all know this now, or we all have understood this teaching.
But if you have never read a bible, and dont know anything about the Deity of Christ.....
And you pick up a bible for the first time in your life and read. """HE""" was manifested in the flesh.
You think... HE who ?????
He...who?

see it?
Thats a bible that needs to go away.

Next.
Go to.... John 4:24.

Does your bible say...>"God is A Spirit", or does it say..>"God is spirit".

Why does this matter so very much?
Because this is the word of God, and if the word of God does not make the distinction between the HOLY SPIRIT vs the unholy Spirit, then that bible is corrupted.

See that distinction that the real bible is making, by showing you that there is a HOLY SPIRIT and there is a UNHOLY spirit?

The corrupt bible does not make that distinction, and is just classifying God's Spirit, as the same as the Unholy. Just "spirit"... all the same.
No difference.
So, that's not a bible as a real bible is going to show you the difference between God's Holy Spirit, vs, the spirit in the Devil.

 

[Clare73]

Thank you for asking that question.

So instead of me naming a version, let me show you how to find out what isn't a real one.

Use 2 verses to find out.

Now, first before you look.
Lets say you believe that Jesus is God.
Well, at one point , none of us knew this...
So, that information is found in a BIBLE.
So, any bible that takes out that information, is a corrupted bible.
Read 1 Timothy 3:16.

Does your bible say...>"God" was manifested in the FLESH, or does it say "HE", was manifest.
If "he" then your bible is "on hold".

See, if you take GOD out of the verse, you have destroyed the PROOF that this verse is supposed to provide... that teaches that Jesus is God.

See, we all know this now, or we all have understood this teaching.
But if you have never read a bible, and dont know anything about the Deity of Christ.....
And you pick up a bible for the first time in your life and read. """HE""" was manifested in the flesh.
You think... HE who ?????
He...who?

see it?
Thats a bible that needs to go away.

Next.

Go to.... John 4:24. Does your bible say...>"God is A Spirit", or does it say..>"God is spirit". Why does this matter so very much?
Because this is the word of God, and if the word of God does not make the distinction between the HOLY SPIRIT vs the unholy Spirit, then that bible is corrupted.

See that distinction that the real bible is making, by showing you that there is a HOLY SPIRIT and there is a UNHOLY spirit?

The corrupt bible does not make that distinction, and is just classifying God's Spirit, as the same as the Unholy. Just "spirit"... all the same.
No difference.
So, that's not a bible as a real bible is going to show you the difference between God's Holy Spirit, vs, the spirit in the Devil.

Incredibly naive. . .

While I am both "human" and "a human," God is "spirit" (without boundaries, omnipresent),
while it is Satan who is "a spirit."

So much for the "non-translator" who assumes the ability to judge translations. . .

 

[BNR32FAN]

Thank you for asking that question.

So instead of me naming a version, let me show you how to find out what isn't a real one.

Use 2 verses to find out.

Now, first before you look.
Lets say you believe that Jesus is God.
Well, at one point , none of us knew this...
So, that information is found in a BIBLE.
So, any bible that takes out that information, is a corrupted bible.
Read 1 Timothy 3:16.

Does your bible say...>"God" was manifested in the FLESH, or does it say "HE", was manifest.
If "he" then your bible is "on hold".

See, if you take GOD out of the verse, you have destroyed the PROOF that this verse is supposed to provide... that teaches that Jesus is God.

See, we all know this now, or we all have understood this teaching.
But if you have never read a bible, and dont know anything about the Deity of Christ.....
And you pick up a bible for the first time in your life and read. """HE""" was manifested in the flesh.
You think... HE who ?????
He...who?

see it?
Thats a bible that needs to go away.

Next.
Go to.... John 4:24.

Does your bible say...>"God is A Spirit", or does it say..>"God is spirit".

Why does this matter so very much?
Because this is the word of God, and if the word of God does not make the distinction between the HOLY SPIRIT vs the unholy Spirit, then that bible is corrupted.

See that distinction that the real bible is making, by showing you that there is a HOLY SPIRIT and there is a UNHOLY spirit?

The corrupt bible does not make that distinction, and is just classifying God's Spirit, as the same as the Unholy. Just "spirit"... all the same.
No difference.
So, that's not a bible as a real bible is going to show you the difference between God's Holy Spirit, vs, the spirit in the Devil.

So your saying that the original message that was inspired by God needs to go away because it is insufficient compared to newer versions. No thanks, I prefer what the original Author wrote.

 

[Hmm]

Let me try it this way..

No, that doesn't work either I'm afraid. Do.you know any other way to 'try it'? I'm all ears.

 

[BNR32FAN]

See, if you take GOD out of the verse, you have destroyed the PROOF that this verse is supposed to provide... that teaches that Jesus is God.

God was never taken out of the verse, it was added into it in the 16th century. See, what your getting with the KJV is the translator’s commentary and interpretation injected into the scriptures. To me that’s a problem, I want to know what the Author actually wrote not what someone thinks He meant by what He wrote.

 

[fhansen]

So the Orthodox Jew who loves God, his righteousness, lives thereby, and loves others well, while rejecting Jesus Christ and his salvation, will stand (pass, not fall/fail) in the Judgment?

Not according to Jesus. (John 3:18; John 3:36)

The concepts and teachings involved have a bit of a history. The Church teaches that any human who is saved, even before Jesus's advent, is saved strictly due to the merits of Jesus Christ and His sacrifice. And because the will of man is involved in his salvation, knowledge is key, as it is in assessing the culpability for any sin-we can't be responsible for not acting on something we have no knowledge of. And while it's held that we have the duty to seek God and seek Him wherever He may be found, it's also understood that, for example, cultures and peoples of differing religions have suffered at the hands of or had conflicts with Christians in the past. While God can do anything, of course, it's not easy for us to pierce through long-held prejudices.

So there's a concept known as "invincible ignorance", that holds that even if people are exposed to Christian teachings, they can still legitimately not know or believe these things to be true. Now the God that a non-Christian knows will be somewhat (for a Jew) if not very different from the God we know. And the more a person comes to know the true God, as revealed by Jesus, the more we love Him-that can't be helped. And that God will help us to love even better. But for a person who loves God and neighbor to the best of their ability with whatever gifts of knowledge, experience, and even grace they've received in this life, they can be saved. Mormons can be saved- even though their understanding is quite skewed, their faith in God can be genuine. Good Samaritans demonstrate a love of neighbor that apparently pleases God; faith can be implicit in these acts.

Who said anything about legalistic works of the law?
Works of faith are obedience in the Holy Spirit leading to holiness (Romans 6:19, Romans 6:22).

I was distinguishing between works that would be considered as self-effort, works of the law asper Eph 2:8-9, vs works that flow from grace as per 2:10. And, yes, I should recall that you similarly recognize that distinction, as you maintain that they are part of sanctification, at least. And that without that holiness no one will see the Lord.

 

[fhansen]

The difference is "authentic" righteousness is not what saves, it is faith apart from works which saves (Ephesians 2:8-9) and justifies (Romans 4:5, 3:21, 28), nevertheless, true faith is never without works of obedience leading to holiness.

Its more than that, sanctification and the obedience it entails are necessary for salvation, as Scripture attests. It simply cannot be split any other way.

 

[Clare73]

So the Orthodox Jew who loves God, and his righteousness, lives thereby, and loves others well, while rejecting Jesus Christ and his salvation, will stand (pass, not fall/fail) in the Judgment?

Not according to Jesus. (John 3:18; John 3:36)

The concepts and teachings involved have a bit of a history.

Neither history nor man trumps NT teaching of John 3:18, John 3:36.

The Church teaches that any human who is saved, even before Jesus's advent, is saved strictly due to the merits of Jesus Christ and His sacrifice. And because the will of man is involved in his salvation, knowledge is key, as it is in assessing the culpability for any sin-we can't be responsible for not acting on something we have no knowledge of. And while it's held that we have the duty to seek God and seek Him wherever He may be found, it's also understood that, for example, cultures and peoples of differing religions have suffered at the hands of or had conflicts with Christians in the past. While God can do anything, of course, it's not easy for us to pierce through long-held prejudices.

So there's a concept known as "invincible ignorance", that holds that even if people are exposed to Christian teachings, they can still legitimately not know or believe these things to be true. Now the God that a non-Christian knows will be somewhat (for a Jew) if not very different from the God we know. And the more a person comes to know the true God, as revealed by Jesus, the more we love Him-that can't be helped. And that God will help us to love even better. But for a person who loves God and neighbor to the best of their ability with whatever gifts of knowledge, experience, and even grace they've received in this life, they can be saved. Mormons can be saved- even though their understanding is quite skewed, their faith in God can be genuine. Good Samaritans demonstrate a love of neighbor that apparently pleases God; faith can be implicit in these acts.

I was distinguishing between works that would be considered as self-effort, works of the law asper Eph 2:8-9, vs works that flow from grace as per 2:10.

Paul's distinction is not about where the effort comes from,
it's about what you rely on--works, (whether they be of law or grace), or faith for salvation (Galatians 3:10, Galatians 3:2, Galatians 3:5).

And, yes, I should recall that you similarly recognize that distinction, as you maintain that they are part of sanctification, at least. And that without that holiness no one will see the Lord.

 

[Clare73]

Its more than that, sanctification and the obedience it entails are necessary for salvation, as Scripture attests. It simply cannot be split any other way.

They are necessary to true faith, which saves (Ephesians 2:8-9), not to salvation nor to justification (Romans 4:5, 3:21, 28).

Distinctions matter--they are the difference here between relying on grace for salvation (Ephesians 2:8-9) or relying on law-keeping (which curses, Galatians 3:10), that's why Paul is so emphatic in making them (Galatians 5:4).

 

[Clare73]

In the context of Romans 1:18-3:20 (three whole chapters), where
Paul is showing the unrighteousness of all mankind, Gentile and Jew, God having locked up all men in sin (Romans 11:32, Romans 3:9-10), Paul is presenting a righteousness from God by faith only (Romans 1:17).

Pure unadulterated, uninformed, speculation.

Please demonsrate the Biblical error in the above, in light of the Scriptures presented therein.

"So we, too, have put our faith in Chist Jersus that we may be justified by faith in Christ and not by observing the law, because by observing the law no one will be justified." (Galatians 2:16)

And that includes the Jews.