- Apr 18, 2020
- 2,492
- 703
- 66
- Country
- United States
- Gender
- Male
- Faith
- Non-Denom
- Marital Status
- Married
Let me try to be more clear. According to the scripture provided, which of these two evenings composes a full 24 hour day, with the daylight time that is mention in this scripture, the one before daylight, or the one after daylight?
I would say the first two were the end of the Weekly Sabbath, Sundown and the dawning of the new day, the first day of the week, which begins at sundown. Since Jesus raised from the dead on Saturday, just before sundown, when they got to the grave, HE was already gone.
But the 3rd verse has some translation issues for me. Besides the CLV you are using, I could only find two other translations that suggested Jesus Spoke with Mary (Touch me not) on God's Sabbath Day, and then met with His Disciples on the Evening of the same Sabbath day. The Jubilee 2000, and the Wycliffe are the only translations I could find which said the same as the CLV that you are using.
The ASV, BBE, CEB, CEBA, CJB, GSB, DBY, ESU, CNT, GW, HNV, KJV, NKJV, LEB, MSG, NAS, NCV, NIV, NIRV, NLT, NRS, NRSA, RHE, RSV, RSVA, TMB, WBT, WEB, WNT, YLT, and the Geneva Bible, all translate the verse to read "first "Day" of the Week". Tyndale says "Morrow after the Sabbath".
My Favorite Translation, TS2009, had these notes for John 20:19.
"The underlying Greek text is "mia ton sabbaton ", which, when literally translated, means "one of the sabbath/s", but is traditionally rendered as "first day of the week." The term "first day of the week" is literally translated as "proté hemera tis hebdomata " in Greek, but nowhere appears as such in the Second Writings. There is a strong argument that "mia ton sabbaton" should be rendered according to Semitic idiom as "day one of the week".
See Mat 28:1, Luqas 24:1, Yoḥ 20:1, Qor. Aleph 16:2 / Mat_28:1, Luk_24:1, Joh_20:1, 1Co_16:2."
It seems evident that Jesus had already Risen and spoke to Mary on the First Day of the Week. Later in that same day, Jesus appeared to His Disciples in a locked room.
I thought about this a lot several years ago, and have found certain translations which seem to have been in error. I think the CLV, and the Jubilee 2000, and the Wycliffe, which I find as excellent translations, simply translated the verse wrong.
I doesn't seem likely that this verse, in 3 translations out of 32, renders all other accounts of the resurrection as questionable. If it were not for these 3 translations, there would be no confusion.
There is my take Hark, for what it's worth
Upvote
0