Yes. Note that we can see the rebudded fig tree (Israel) now, and people older than babies saw it bud the same year it happened. The verse doesn't require that the rebudding of the fig tree be seen by babies the same year it happened....Jesus mentions when you SEE these things ....that indicates someone older than a baby...
I believe this is because since the 2nd World War there has been a tremendous proliferation in the number of nations established as independent entities....Luke didn't agree either because he said the fig and ALL trees...
In the Old Testament the fig tree was a picture of the nation of physical Israel (Hosea 9:10, Joel 1:7), and in the New Testament Jesus' cursing of the fig tree was a picture of his coming judgment against the nation of physical Israel:...The fig tree-Israel connection , in my opinion is, garbage...
I don't believe so....We'll know for sure next year?...
I agree it demonstrated divine power, but not just that, for the reasons I stated....I think the episode with the fig tree just demonstrates devine power...
What do you mean by "as far as you and I are concerned?" Do you believe the 2nd coming of Revelation 19 happened in the past for others?...I see the second coming of Christ, as far as you and I are concerned, as being future...
Based on what scripture?...However, I believe Jesus has already judged Chris Columbus...
What scripture are you thinking of here?...I see the bible as telling us that the Great Tribulation was in the first century...
How did it happen?...I see the event we call the coming of the son of man/kingdom of God/kingdom of Heaven ocurring immediately after that...
What scripture are you thinking of here? ...From that time on mankind has been judged at their death...
How do you understand Revelation 20:4-5?...I see no future resurrection of the masses...
What verse are you thinking of here?...The Coming of the son of God/ Kingdom of Heaven/ coming of the son of man had to occur in the first century because Jesus said it was going to...
Note that in Luke 17:20-21, Jesus was replying to the Pharisees, who expected Christ to conquer the world physically at his 1st coming. He was trying to get them to realize that they had to be conquered on the inside first -- as he had told them previously: all they cared about was externals (Luke 11:39)....The kingdom of God does not come with your careful observation...
How do you understand 1 Thessalonians 4:14-17 and 1 Corinthians 15:51-52?...The resurrection of you and I will be spiritual...
Matthew 10:23 says the disciples won't go over all the cities of Israel before Jesus comes. They didn't, we haven't, and he hasn't. I believe the prophecy will be fulfilled because he will come again before all the cities of Israel have been gone over by his disciples....He will come before they get thru some city/cities...
Yes, I believe these two verses were fulfilled at the transfiguration....Matthew 16 : 28, Mark 9 :1, describing the transfiguration...
"Yet Jesus said not unto him, He shall not die; but, If I will that he tarry till I come, what is that to thee?" (John 21:23) Note that this doesn't require a coming of Christ before John died; it only required Peter to not be jealous of John for not having to be martyred like Peter had just been told he would be (John 21:19). I don't believe Jesus was telling Peter that John would tarry until Jesus came, only that Peter should consider his reaction IF Jesus' willed that John never die while Peter would have to die a cruel death (by crucifixion upside down, as it turned out). ...John 21 :20 -23?...
Note that "was preached" (KJV) in Colossians 1:23 is a translation from the original Greek aorist tense, which is considered without regard for past, present, or future time. One translation of this verse that captures the aorist flavor is "You heard the same good news as is told to everyone in the whole world" (Worldwide English Translation). If the gospel had already been preached to everyone, I don't believe Paul would have spoken elsewhere of his desire "to preach the gospel in the regions beyond you, and not to boast in another man's line of things made ready to our hand" (2 Corinthians 10:16), and today's missionaries would not be troubling themselves to reach remote tribes in places like Borneo and the Amazon which have not yet heard the gospel....there is a verse in Matthew 24 that tells us the end will come after the gospel is preached; Col 1 : 23 says that is a done deal...
Even if Paul at one time expected the 2nd coming in his lifetime (contrast 2 Timothy 4:6), I believe that it still has not yet occurred for anyone, for when was Jesus' coming seen by every eye of every tribe and kindred on earth, causing them great grief? (Matthew 24:30 and Revelation 1:7) When were those who were still alive and in Christ changed in the twinkling of an eye into immortal bodies? (1 Corinthians 15:23, 51-53) When was the Antichrist destroyed? (2 Thessalonians 2:8) When did Revelation 19 happen? When were Zechariah 14 and Zechariah 12 fulfilled?...1 Thess 4... Paul uses the word WE...
Note that the Bible doesn't say the resurrection happens at the moment of the death of this or that individual, but will happen at "the coming of the Lord," when "the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise" (1 Thessalonians 4:15-16), that is, the 2nd coming must occur first....At our death in the blink of an eye we may go from the physical to the spiritual...
Note that "hath abolished" (KJV) in 2 Timothy 1:10 is a translation from the original Greek aorist tense, which is considered without regard for past, present, or future time. Death will continue its work upon mankind until it is cast into the lake of fire after the millennium and the 2nd resurrection (Revelation 20:13-14). ...Death has been abolished. 2 Tim 1 : 10...
I don't. Those disciples died before they preached to every city of Israel. Jesus didn't come and instantly transform them while still alive into immortal bodies (1 Corinthians 15:23, 51-53). The 2nd coming hasn't happened yet. The prophecy of Matthew 10:23 will be fulfilled because the 2nd coming will happen before all the cities of Israel have been gone over by his disciples past or present....He listed the names of the people who would not get thru the cities so how would you get those disciples to still be preaching around the cities of anywhere?...
Jesus didn't want that. "Jesus said not unto him, He shall not die." John died. Jesus wanted Peter to not be jealous of John for not having to be martyred like Peter would be (John 21:19); Jesus wanted Peter to consider his reaction IF Jesus had willed that John never die while Peter would have to die a cruel death....John was to live until His return IF Jesus wanted John to live until His return...
But note again that the Greek itself doesn't indicate a past tense. And again, if the gospel had already been preached to everyone, I don't believe Paul would have spoken elsewhere of his desire "to preach the gospel in the regions beyond you, and not to boast in another man's line of things made ready to our hand" (2 Corinthians 10:16), and today's missionaries would not be troubling themselves to reach remote tribes in places like Borneo and the Amazon which have not yet heard the gospel....I'd stay with the way the interpreters wrote [Col 1: 23] in say KJV...
How? Matthew 10:23 says they wouldn't reach every city of Israel....it agrees with Matthew 10 ; 23 as written...
Note that I asked: When were those who were still alive and in Christ changed in the twinkling of an eye into immortal bodies?...postrib: "When were those who were still alive and in Christ changed in the twinkling of an eye into immortal bodies?"
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When they died...
Note that in Luke 17:20-21, Jesus was replying to the Pharisees, who expected Christ to conquer the world physically at his 1st coming. He was trying to get them to realize that they had to be conquered on the inside first -- as he had told them previously: all they cared about was externals (Luke 11:39)....the coming of the Kingdom of God is not visible to the living...
When Paul said "we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord" (1 Thessalonians 4:15), I believe he was referring to we Christians generally, and wasn't including himself, for he knew he was going to die before Jesus came (2 Timothy 4:6), which he did, as did all of the 1st century Thessalonians. 1 Thessalonians 4:15 will be fulfilled because some of us Christians will be alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord, which still has not yet occurred for any of us, for, again, when was Jesus' coming seen by every eye of every tribe and kindred on earth, causing them great grief? (Matthew 24:30 and Revelation 1:7) When were those who were still alive and in Christ changed in the twinkling of an eye into immortal bodies? (1 Corinthians 15:23, 51-53) When was the Antichrist destroyed? (2 Thessalonians 2:8) When did Revelation 19 happen? When were Zechariah 14 and Zechariah 12 fulfilled?...The phrase is "we who are still alive, and remain til the coming......" How do you see this?...
How do any of these require that the resurrection happens at the moment of the death of this or that individual?...Note that the Bible doesn't say the resurrection happens at the moment of the death of this or that individual,
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Well, when you put together John 11 :25, 26, Hebrews 9 : 27, Luke 23 : 43,1 Cor. 15 :44 and others, what else can it say?...
I don't believe so. Note again that at the 1st resurrection (Revelation 20:4-5), the mortal bodies of believers will be resurrected, for Jesus "shall change our vile body, that it may be fashioned like unto his glorious body" (Philippians 3:21), for "if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you" (Romans 8:11), "for the trumpet shall sound, and the dead shall be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed. For this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality. So when this corruptible shall have put on incorruption, and this mortal shall have put on immortality, then shall be brought to pass the saying that is written, Death is swallowed up in victory. O death, where is thy sting? O grave, where is thy victory?" (1 Corinthians 15:52-55)...remaining in graves after dying will continue to be a part of every living mortal creature...
Note again that "hath abolished" in 2 Timothy 1:10 is a translation from the original Greek aorist tense, which is considered without regard for past, present, or future time. We are still dying. Death will continue its work upon mankind until it is cast into the lake of fire after the millennium and the 2nd resurrection (Revelation 20:13-14)....hath abolished death...
I believe Jesus' 2nd coming must be physical because Jesus must come back from heaven (Acts 3:20-21) just as physically as he left: "This same Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so come in like manner as ye have seen him go into heaven" (Acts 1:11). He physically went from the Mount of Olives to the clouds to heaven. He will physically return from heaven to the clouds to the Mount of Olives: "And his feet shall stand in that day upon the mount of Olives" (Zechariah 14:3-4); "And one shall say unto him, What are these wounds in thine hands?" (Zechariah 13:6)...Could you lay out some of the key verses and arguments thereof that lead you to believe in a physical return of Jesus as discussed in Matthew 24, Luke 21 or Mark 13?...
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