Clare73
Blood-bought
- Jun 12, 2012
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- US-Republican
Nor did I say it was. The person objecting is in agreement with Ted.Who is Ted? Why do you feel the need to include an explanation if the verse is self explanatory? The person objecting here isn't Ted.
That is precisely the point in vv. 14-24, in Paul's treatment of the absolute sovereignty of God in the disposition of all men, and man's objection to it.And what the verse says is being said by the hardened Jew who is objecting to God using his rebellion to advance the gospel. The point isn't God hardening the heart.
The point of Romans 9 is thatThe point is that God did not fail in spite of his chosen people rebelling.
salvation is not, and never has been, by descent from Abraham, but by faith alone, and that
God failed neither in his promise to Israel, fulfilling it in a remnant,
nor in his purpose of the gospel, the offer of salvation to the world,
in exercising his absolute sovereignty in the disposition of men.
Are you sure about that?Ironic that you have it so backwards.
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