Radrook
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- Feb 25, 2016
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Firstly, in that passage from Corinthians Paul is not talking about the Trinity. Secondly, the natural man or someone without the Spirit isn't at issue. There is nothing in the Scriptures that says God is a being that consists of three persons. It's not in the Bible. So, saying that man doesn't understand the things of God is irrelevant since it's not God who said that God is a being that consists of three persons. It was men who said that. In particular it was men from the fifth century. People didn't hold this illogical idea until the fifth century. The apostle Paul said, there is one God, the Father.
5 For though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,)
6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.1 (1 Cor. 8:5-6 KJV)
One God, the Father. This is what Christians believed as late as the 300's AD. The Nicene Creed of 325 AD. Is almost a quote verbatim of what Paul said. Here is the first line of the Nicene Creed.
"I believe in one God, the Father Almighty, Maker of heaven and earth, and of all things visible and invisible."
The revised version of the Creed in 381 AD. says the same thing.
"We believe in one God, the Father, Ruler of all, maker of heaven and earth, and of all things visible and invisible."
It's not until we get into the 400's that we find this idea of three co-equal, co-eternal, persons as one God.
What this shows is that all of the passages that you believe make your point can be understood in a different way. I would submit, the correct way. This idea that there is a being who consists of three persons is simply illogical and not what was understood as the Christian faith in the beginning.
Almost four hundred years is indeed a long time for a doctrine that is now viewed as very essential to Christian theology to have been absent as an absolute requirement for Christian worship. Also, the scripture does say that the Father is God without making mention of the Son nor the holy Spirit. However, how do you explain the many scriptures that the NT writers knew applied to God almighty but who then applied it to Jesus? How do you explain John 1: 1? There seems to be a controversy which the Bible itself generates by offering what appears to be contradictory testimony.
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