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I appreciate this false, irrelevant opinion.I have studied 'trinity' for many many years now. I have found NO information that 'trinity' existed until the late fourth century.
Clement of Alexandria [a.d. 153-193-217.] The Stromata, Or Miscellanies. Book V. Chap. XIV
So that when he says, “Around the king of all, all things are, and because of Him are all things; and he [or that] is the cause of all good things; and around the second are the things second in order; and around the third, the third,” I understand nothing else than the Holy Trinity to be meant; for the third is the Holy Spirit, and the Son is the second, by whom all things were made according to the will of the Father.
Tertullian [a.d. 145-220] Against Marcion VII. Against Praxeas. Chapter II
As if in this way also one were not All, in that All are of One, by unity (that is) of substance; while the mystery of the dispensation is still guarded, which distributes the Unity into a Trinity, placing in their order the three Persons - the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost: three, however, not in condition, but in degree; (see The Apology, ch. xxi.) not in substance, but in form; not in power, but in aspect; yet of one substance, and of one condition, and of one power, inasmuch as He is one God, from whom these degrees and forms and aspects are reckoned, under the
Origen [a.d. 185-230-254.] De Principiis. Book I. Chap. III.
2. From all which we learn that the person of the Holy Spirit was of such authority and dignity, that saving baptism was not complete except by the authority of the most excellent Trinity of them all, i.e., by the naming of Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, and by joining to the unbegotten God the Father, and to His only-begotten Son, the name also of the Holy Spirit.
So that when he says, “Around the king of all, all things are, and because of Him are all things; and he [or that] is the cause of all good things; and around the second are the things second in order; and around the third, the third,” I understand nothing else than the Holy Trinity to be meant; for the third is the Holy Spirit, and the Son is the second, by whom all things were made according to the will of the Father.
Tertullian [a.d. 145-220] Against Marcion VII. Against Praxeas. Chapter II
As if in this way also one were not All, in that All are of One, by unity (that is) of substance; while the mystery of the dispensation is still guarded, which distributes the Unity into a Trinity, placing in their order the three Persons - the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost: three, however, not in condition, but in degree; (see The Apology, ch. xxi.) not in substance, but in form; not in power, but in aspect; yet of one substance, and of one condition, and of one power, inasmuch as He is one God, from whom these degrees and forms and aspects are reckoned, under the
Origen [a.d. 185-230-254.] De Principiis. Book I. Chap. III.
2. From all which we learn that the person of the Holy Spirit was of such authority and dignity, that saving baptism was not complete except by the authority of the most excellent Trinity of them all, i.e., by the naming of Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, and by joining to the unbegotten God the Father, and to His only-begotten Son, the name also of the Holy Spirit.
Once again I appreciate this false, irrelevant opinion.the first use of the word was 'not' according to the 'doctrine' that exists NOW. The first mention of the 'term' was in reference to the attributes of 'God'. The Son or the Holy Spirit weren't even mentioned.
So the 'idea' that 'trinity' came into existence in 180 AD? Not even close.
Logical fallacy argument from silence. How many years after God chose His people did He reveal His son to them and how was He received by those people?But let us pretend that 'trinity' did come into existence in 180 AD. Why did it take God or His Son to reveal this 'truth' 180 years ''after'' the death of the Son?
Twelve were chosen to reveal Christ to the 'world'. Does it make any kind of sense that Christ didn't reveal 'trinity' to them?
But instead, both Father and Son waited 180 years 'after' the Son came to reveal Himself and His Father to the world to reveal that they were part of a 'trinity'.
Irrelevant. The cross was foolishness to those who were perishing.Makes no sense to me.
We know no such thing! If you can, please name one pagan religion which had a "multi part" god and which might have influenced the Christian Trinity? I do not know of any pagan religion which had a trinity of deities of even a triad of deities. A triad being three deities supposedly functioning together affecting the affairs of mankind.Yet we DO KNOW that there had been 'many religions', including Greek and Roman religions, that worshiped 'multi part' God's.
When God revealed Himself to the Hebrews, He revealed Himself as 'one God'. No other Gods beside Him. The Hebrews worshiped God as 'singular'. Uncompounded.
Now, if God, when He revealed Himself was 'plural instead of singular', why didn't he reveal Himself as such?
8. R. Samuel b. Nahman said in R. Jonathan's name: When Moses was engaged in writing the Torah, he had to write the work of each day. When he came to the verse, AND GOD SAID: LET us MAKE MAN, etc., he said: 'Sovereign of the Universe! Why dost Thou furnish an
excuse to heretics?'[sup]1[/sup] 'Write,' replied He; 'whoever wishes to err may err.’
[sup]1[/sup] For maintaining a plurality of gods.
R. Simlai said: Wherever you find a point [apparently] supporting the heretics, you find the refutation at its side. They asked him again: 'What is meant by, AND GOD SAID: LET us MAKE MAN?' 'Read what follows,' replied he: 'not, "And gods created (wa-yibre'u) man" is written here, but "And God created wa-yibra" (Gen. I, 27). When they went out his disciples said to him : ' Them you have dismissed with a mere makeshift, but how will you answer us?'
Midrash Rabbah Genesis I Translated Into English With Notes, Glossary And Indices
Under The Editorship Of Rabbi Dr. H. Freedman, B.A., Ph.D.
excuse to heretics?'[sup]1[/sup] 'Write,' replied He; 'whoever wishes to err may err.’
[sup]1[/sup] For maintaining a plurality of gods.
R. Simlai said: Wherever you find a point [apparently] supporting the heretics, you find the refutation at its side. They asked him again: 'What is meant by, AND GOD SAID: LET us MAKE MAN?' 'Read what follows,' replied he: 'not, "And gods created (wa-yibre'u) man" is written here, but "And God created wa-yibra" (Gen. I, 27). When they went out his disciples said to him : ' Them you have dismissed with a mere makeshift, but how will you answer us?'
Midrash Rabbah Genesis I Translated Into English With Notes, Glossary And Indices
Under The Editorship Of Rabbi Dr. H. Freedman, B.A., Ph.D.
I prefer evidence rather than unsupported opinion. The plural elohim has been explained many times.You can 'say' that the word God itself is offered as a 'plural'. But without an explanation, that is meaningless.
Irrelevant! Logical fallacy, "argument from silence." Absence of evidence is not evidence of absence.So why didn't God reveal Himself as 'Father, Son and Holy Spirit' from the 'beginning' if this IS His very nature? Why wait for thousands and thousands of years to reveal this?
If 'trinity' is truth, then it would seem that God deceived those He revealed Himself to in the beginning.
And if the Son was 'the God of creation', then Moses and those that he taught were deceived. For there is no mention of 'the Son' in the first five books of the Torah.
More irrelevant argument from silence.I take that back, Moses was informed that in the future one 'greater than himself' would come and instead of the 'law' being written on stone, at that point, God's laws would be written upon men's hearts.
But this 'person' was not identified 'as God'. Just one 'greater than Moses'.
So, why didn't God reveal 'trinity' when first revealing Himself? For if one is 'three persons in one God', yet is revealed as 'singular', that's really not 'revealing oneself' now is it?
What happened when Jesus only identified Himself as the Son of God?" Was Jesus readily accepted by the people He was sent to save? Knowing what did happen to Jesus, what would have happened if Jesus had openly proclaimed He was God? At the very least He would have been considered insane and almost certainly would have been stoned.And then there is 'Christ' Himself. Who did Christ reveal Himself to BE?
Philippians 2:6-9Over and over and over again He 'stated' that He is the SON of God. And He stated that He was 'sent by God', His Father. And He stated that the Father is 'greater' than the Son.
And then we have this:
Wrong! John 17:5. John 3:13, John 6:38, John 6:51Ephesians 1
Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the will of God, to the saints which are at Ephesus, and to the faithful in Christ Jesus: Grace be to you, and peace, from God our Father, and from the Lord Jesus Christ. Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ
Wow. THE God and Father of Jesus Christ.
Could it be offered any clearer? THE God and Father of Jesus Christ.
Not God the Father. But THE God and Father.
So this clearly affirms what Christ Himself offered. That God is His Father. Christ is the 'begotten Son of God'. Not 'God the Son'. But merely the Son of God. Big difference. And clearly if 'begotten', there was a 'time before' being 'begotten'. There was a 'time before the Son' existed.
The word translated "only begotten" is monogenes. Monos being only. The second part of the word is derived from γίνομαι/ginomai which is a prolonged and middle form of a primary verb; to cause to be (“gen” -erate), that is, (reflexively) to become (come into being)" The root word is never translated born or begotten.
Logical fallacy "argument from silence."So the question is: How could God truly reveal Himself if He is 'three persons' in 'one God', yet NOT reveal this? How was He 'truly' revealed to the Hebrews if not revealed in 'truth'?
That would be like me trying to say that I 'truly' revealed myself as Mike. When in truth that is 'just a name'. That is NOT 'who I am'.
If God 'truly' revealed Himself to the Hebrews, then there is 'no trinity' in truth. For God revealed no such thing to His 'chosen people'.
Nor did Christ reveal 'trinity' to His people.
There was no Roman anything to introduce the Trinity or anything else until 1075. And the Trinity was written about by the early church about 800 years earlier.The Romans introduced 'trinity' almost four hundred years AFTER Romans crucified God's Son.
Logical fallacy, "argument from silence" Thank you for this unsupported irrelevant opinion.Yet all that were chosen to 'establish' Christ's Church were Jews. ALL the apostles were JEWS. And not a single apostle spoke of this 'trinity'. Or at least not a WORD is recorded of them 'speaking of trinity'.
Blessings,
MEC
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