Honestly I do not understand why you keep trying to separate these two things.
Because the NT does, and it's important. It's the difference between
profession of saving faith and actual
possession of saving faith. Profession is not necessarily possession.
You used the phrase “true faith” so what is “false faith” in your mind?
False faith is a profession of faith where in reality there is no new birth. True faith is not the result of good works, nor are good works the
substance of faith, good works are only the
evidence of faith. True faith is the result of only one thing, the new birth.
Because “false faith” to me would just be an oxymoron and it would make more sense to say faith vs faithlessness
However, "faithlessness" usually refers to failure in commitment, e.g., in marriage, and that makes works the
substance of faith, where the
substance of faith is belief and trust, the
object of faith is the person and work of Jesus Christ for forgiveness of one's sin and reconciliation with God, the
practice of faith is obedience, and the
evidence of faith is good works. But keeping in mind that not all evidence in court is always true. It's the jury's job to sort out the true from the false.
rather than redefining faith as “true faith” as if the qualifier “true” needs to be used to differentiate true faith from any other kind of non-true faith.
And in that, faith is active.
Activity neither makes nor proves saving faith, it is only evidence. Now, without that evidence, we know the faith is not saving faith. But there is also
false evidence. The difference between them is one is born again, and the evidence of works is
true evidence, and the other is not born again, and the evidence of works is
false evidence, it is not of the Holy Spirit, it is simply human effort to earn God's favor.
It’s fidelity. Israel was betrothed to the Lord and the Church is the bride of Christ. Faith (faithfulness, fidelity) is an active, living state of being.
The rich man died under the old covenant as
@Der Alte said. He was part of Israel and
his faithlessness was manifested in his action.
Under the old covenant, failure to feed your hungry neighbor would not get you in hell. . .that's what the sacrifices were for, to pay for your sin. . .
What got the rich man in hell was the same thing that would get all six of them in his father's house in hell, failure to believe the testimony of Moses and the Prophets regarding Jesus as the Messiah and Savior. (Six is one short of seven, not a good thing, of an unclean spirit.)
Again I really don’t think this is worth arguing about
It must be, because you are vested in defending it
not being about
unbelief in Jesus as Messiah and Savior, of which the religious leaders were guilty.
but I genuinely can’t understand how you can’t see it. I guess it bothers me to hear things like “In the NT, not feeding your hungry neighbour will not get you in hell” because it comes across like not understanding why it would actually be wrong to do what the rich man did.
Perhaps because one's reference points are more about good works being our salvation rather than faith, repentance and forgiveness being our salvation.
So then if you turn the whole thing into an abstract metaphor
There is nothing abstract about failure to believe in Jesus Christ. There is absolutely
nothing more important in one's life.
it’s like not even hearing or applying what it literally says.
Well first of all, parables are not literal, they are metaphor. Interpreting them literally misses the point every time, which Jesus said is why he spoke in parables in the presence of his enemies--the religious leaders, so they wouldn't understand them and make a case against his teaching.
So, the
metaphor used by the parable is addressing a much larger and more serious issue than omission of good works, where the sacrifices were the remedy for those failures. Jesus' parabolic teaching is addressing
unbelief in him as Messiah and Savior, which unbelief
condemns to hell, because there is
no sacrifice for unbelief.