Of course you are free to believe either way.This is a non salvfic issue so whether Paul was the first member of the body of Christ, we are free to believe either way
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Of course you are free to believe either way.This is a non salvfic issue so whether Paul was the first member of the body of Christ, we are free to believe either way
I believe none of the other 12 are in the Body of Christ, they are in charge of Israel. Recall Jesus promised them that, when he returns for Israel, they will be sitting on 12 thrones judging the 12 tribes of Israel.
Thus, I can accept that, when Jesus returns, they will definitely be included. So my answer to you is "Yes, their sins are forgiven".
Based on what they told Israel in their letters placed at the end of the NT, they are all looking forward to Jesus returning for Israel.
You can only make this extreme viewpoint work by ignoring the fulfillment of the New Covenant. I asked you before if you know of anyone else with this same viewpoint.
Once a person comes to understand the New Covenant promised to Israel and Judah in Jeremiah 31:31-34, which is found fulfilled by Christ during the first century in Hebrews 8:6-13, and Hebrews 10:16-18, and specifically applied to the Church in 2 Corinthians 3:6-8, and Hebrews 12:22-24, modern Dispensational Theology falls apart, and the pretrib removal of the Church falls with it.
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It’s not even a strong viewpoint.
Scripture never stated that the 12 are in the body of Christ. You have to read that term in
Act_2:47 Praising God, and having favour with all the people. And the Lord added to the church daily such as should be saved.
G1577
ἐκκλησία
ekklēsia
ek-klay-see'-ah
From a compound of G1537 and a derivative of G2564; a calling out, that is, (concretely) a popular meeting, especially a religious congregation (Jewish synagogue, or Christian community of members on earth or saints in heaven or both): - assembly, church.
Total KJV occurrences: 115
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Called out assembly is not equivalent to the body of Christ.
The latter is a secret that was first revealed to Paul
Considering we're now at page 38....we may need a refresher of how that was answered before.Thought we already covered that in this thread?
Found it. This quote is from this post: Covenant and New Covenant theologyFor your 2nd question, there is a difference between preaching
versus
- In wickedness, you have killed your Messiah but God raised him from the dead as a sign that he is truly the Son of God, so repent of that wicked deed and be water baptized, and you will be saved from your sins in the future. (Acts 2:36 Acts 3:14-21 Acts 5:30 Acts 7:52 )
- Christ has died for your sins and rose again on the 3rd day for your justification. (1 Cor 15:1-4)
Thought we already covered that in this thread?
Found it. This quote is from this post: Covenant and New Covenant theology
So.....in other words (@Guojing), in answer to BABerean2's question:
Are you claiming Peter and Paul were preaching different Gospels?....as a choice between "yes" or "no".....you would answer "yes". Correct? I don't wish to misrepresent your beliefs
A simple yes, or no, would be good for those of us who have a New Testament to read.
We especially want to compare what you are saying to Galatians 1:6-9.
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So for gentile believers who are going to be saved thru the fall of Israel, the gospel of grace revealed to Paul is the only valid gospel for them.
How do you explain the fact that the Church as a whole has never been a "Gentile Church"?
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Yes, in the Body of Christ, there is neither Jew nor Gentile.
As Acts 15 and Galatians 2 indicated, Acts was a transitional period, where the gospel of the Kingdom is fading away, as the nation Israel rejected their Messiah.
We now know it began with the stoning of Stephen, but Peter, James and the others would not have known then. That was why their letters, placed at the end of the NT, indicated they still believe Israel has not fallen.
Acts 21:20 and Acts 22:12 indicated this transition where the Law of Moses still held for all Jews during that period, while gentiles who believed were exempted from the Law
The Gospel never changed. To identify what the Gospel is...I'd suggest reading Acts 2 - Peter’s sermon and Acts 13 - Paul's sermon. That may be the simplest way to sum up what the Gospel actually is.You are fond of anticipating revelation.
Paul wrote Galatians after the Jerusalem Council event in Acts 15, where it was decided that Paul's gospel was legitimate and the only gospel for gentile believers to follow.
So for gentile believers who are going to be saved thru the fall of Israel, the gospel of grace revealed to Paul is the only valid gospel for them.
Prior to Acts 15, it was the gospel of the kingdom for Israel, preached by both Jesus and the 12.
I want to make sure I am understanding you.Guojing said:Paul wrote Galatians after the Jerusalem Council event in Acts 15, where it was decided that Paul's gospel was legitimate and the only gospel for gentile believers to follow.
Guojing, you don't make any distinction between Israel and Judah.Yes, in the Body of Christ, there is neither Jew nor Gentile.
As Acts 15 and Galatians 2 indicated, Acts was a transitional period, where the gospel of the Kingdom is fading away, as the nation Israel rejected their Messiah.
We now know it began with the stoning of Stephen, but Peter, James and the others would not have known then. That was why their letters, placed at the end of the NT, indicated they still believe Israel has not fallen.
Acts 21:20 and Acts 22:12 indicated this transition where the Law of Moses still held for all Jews during that period, while gentiles who believed were exempted from the Law
Ezekiel 37 is a process, not the everything prophesied fulfilled at once.That they have not yet rejoined, is obvious from Ezekiel 37, as the prophesied Blessings have not been received yet.