NorrinRadd, thank you SO MUCH for replying. I had actually really hoped and thought I would get more of "the other side" here, and I am not seeing it?
Frankly, these Scriptures have simply been ignored in most of the churches I have attended, so I don't know the argument "against" the plain interpretation, so this time I was really hoping to hear that.
I want the truth, of course, but being that I can't erase my mind, the only way I can find to level the field for interpretation is to consider all points, in order to offset others, so that I may look at things honestly. And this is one point that my husband vehemently objected to when I mentioned one of the verses, so I hoped to sort this one out quickly.
1 John 1:9
If we confess our sins, He is faithful and righteous to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
The context suggests to me that this is not about an explicit citation of one's sins -- whether to God or some human intercessor -- but a general admission of "yes, I sin" as opposed to a claim of "I have no sins" (v. 8). In context, "sin" is that which breaks fellowship with Jesus and with each other. In the larger context of the epistle and the entire Johannine corpus, it is breaking of commandments, which John eventually gets around to defining as the breaking of "Love one another." In the closer context of John 1 and into John 2, we have hope when we do sin, because we have Jesus as Advocate and Intercessor; so we have hope, and He has the glory.
Thank you. I have not had time to re-read the book of 1 John with your comments in mind, but I can see what you are saying, and I do see the immediate context easily.
That was actually my "main verse" that said "we confess to God" though ...
And of course, we have OT precedence to confess to God, through the Psalms in many places:
Psalm 32:5 I acknowledged my sin to You, And my iniquity I did not hide; I said, “I will confess my transgressions to the Lord”; And You forgave the guilt of my sin.
Which is interesting, in that it is under a Covenant that explicitly included a formal priesthood for dealing with sins.
Good point. I was searching quickly for one instance in the OT of praying directly to God for forgiveness and receiving it, since I didn't see the OT as bearing on the question above what we see in the NT. But you are absolutely right, and I had somehow completely forgotten that.
Which again, makes another potential argument for God's plan for dealing with sin to be within such a structure.
And of course it is the Pharisees talking in verses like this, but we have several that are against Jesus such as Mark 2:7 which indicate at the least that the religious thought was that only God could forgive sins.
"Why does this man speak that way? He is blaspheming; who can forgive sins but God alone?"
That could be taken as repudiation of His forgiving sins apart from proper priestly rituals. And therefore we could interpret His actions as showing that that the old priesthood was becoming unnecessary in the new age.
Basically a point for each side then (if I'm treating this as a contest, which I'm not, I'm just trying to analyze your responses). And the first point is really just an emphasis on your last one, that the OT had that structure, and we've already established that. However, you do have a point that this can be taken as implying that the priesthood was becoming unnecessary.
Though one can argue against the significance by saying that Jesus is our High Priest. But, your point still stands, only with argument against.
James 5
14 Is anyone among you sick? Then he must call for the elders of the church and they are to pray over him, anointing him with oil in the name of the Lord; 15 and the prayer offered in faith will restore the one who is sick, and the Lord will raise him up, and if he has committed sins, they will be forgiven him. 16 Therefore, confess your sins to one another, and pray for one another so that you may be healed. The effective prayer of a righteous man can accomplish much.
That passage is a bit ambiguous, since it combines the ideas of calling for the council of elders for prayer for healing and forgiveness and of members of the church in general confessing to each other and praying for healing for each other.
True. It is ambiguous in terms of WHO one should confess to, but it still represents public confession on both ends.
It almost seems the thread is developing the question of who to confess to (human person) rather than my intent, which was actually "should we be confessing to man at all" and my presupposition was that maybe we should not be, but rather directly to God. Though I am trying not to let those presuppositions get in the way of the truth of the Bible, this one seems more cut and dried than anything I have yet considered, to my great surprise.
John 20
21 So Jesus said to them again, “Peace be with you; as the Father has sent Me, I also send you.” 22 And when He had said this, He breathed on them and *said to them, “Receive the Holy Spirit. 23 If you forgive the sins of any, their sins have been forgiven them; if you retain the sins of any, they have been retained.”
This is John's version of the Great Commission. As you know, I see the part where He blew into them and invited them to receive the Spirit as call-backs to John 3, to Eze. 36 and 37, and to Adam, hence the point at which they were returned to live by being (re)born from above. Since the need to be revived in this way is common to all, the Commission applies to all believers. All believers are therefore representatives of God and authorized to forgive sins in the cases in which He would.
Noted. Which as I said ... the question seems to be becoming "who" rather than "if" ...
When I read online, I find reference to Matt 16 connected to this:
18 I also say to you that you are Peter, and upon this rock I will build My church; and the gates of Hades will not overpower it. 19 I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven; and whatever you bind on earth shall have been bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall have been loosed in heaven.”
In regard to the "keys of the Kingdom" part, Keener notes Matt. 23:13. There, Jesus rebuked the Pharisees for improperly and hypocritically assuming the authority to admit or preclude people from Heaven. Here Jesus gives the legitimate authority to those who confess Him.
So not related to confession and forgiveness in that interpretation. I actually question if there is good enough reason to connect the two, though I see most do. I haven't gotten to really consider that question yet, as it is secondary to me. Thank you for your input on it though. I appreciate that.
And Matt 18 - which talks about several things, and I'm debating how much to consider as being context, and why.
15 “If your brother sins, go and show him his fault in private; if he listens to you, you have won your brother. 16 But if he does not listen to you, take one or two more with you, so that by the mouth of two or three witnesses every fact may be confirmed. 17 If he refuses to listen to them, tell it to the church; and if he refuses to listen even to the church, let him be to you as a Gentile and a tax collector. 18 Truly I say to you, whatever you bind on earth shall have been bound in heaven; and whatever you loose on earth shall have been loosed in heaven.
19 “Again I say to you, that if two of you agree on earth about anything that they may ask, it shall be done for them by My Father who is in heaven. 20 For where two or three have gathered together in My name, I am there in their midst.”
21 Then Peter came and said to Him, “Lord, how often shall my brother sin against me and I forgive him? Up to seven times?” 22 Jesus *said to him, “I do not say to you, up to seven times, but up to seventy times seven.
I believe that's the proper extent of the context. Contrary to common usage, vv. 19-20 are not about prayer, at least in the general sense, they are about invoking God as both Judge and Reconciler.
Thank you. I do think the context is sometimes wrongly divided. I'm not completely set on this, but I don't break it into as many sections as the resource I usually use has done, certainly. It seems to relate, to me.
"Bind" and "loose," sometimes translated "forbid" and "permit," were terms used of rabbis in regard to their authority to apply God's law as mediators and adjudicators.
In both Matt. 16 and Matt. 18, the tense is more like "Whatever you forbid on earth will have already been forbidden from Heaven, and what you permit on earth will have already been forbidden from [permitted in - accidentally the opposite?] Heaven." IOW, we can announce Heaven's verdict to the best of our understanding, not invent our own. In Matt 16 the application is more general, while in Matt. 18 it is applied to personal disputes.
Thank you, I have heard that before.
I really need to learn to get into the tenses and such in Greek, I am so limited sometimes in figuring out what the Bible actually said. I appreciate the help.
Overall, thank you so much for your post, NorrinRadd. If you'd care at any point to add more, or if anyone else would? I would guess your beliefs are more along the lines of not confessing to men, but to God?
I would still appreciate hearing any "refutation" or alternative explanation of these Scriptures by anyone who would say it means something else, or perhaps there are Scriptures I missed in my search that say something different?
I'm not trying to make the Bible say what I want, or anything like that. I just know that I've been taught confession to man is not necessary, and I don't even know the reasons why from Scripture (beyond the torn veil).
The only other possible Scripture I can come up with is Hebrews 4
14Therefore, since we have a great high priest who has passed through the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold fast our confession. 15 For we do not have a high priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but One who has been tempted in all things as we are, yet without sin. 16 Therefore let us draw near with confidence to the throne of grace, so that we may receive mercy and find grace to help in time of need.
Which I can't find actual confession and forgiveness here - this is about Christ being our High Priest, having been tempted, not having sinned, but I think it has more to do with His worthiness as High Priest (and later in Hebrews as sacrifice?) ... the "confession" here is the confession of faith, I believe. I think of it because we draw near with confidence to the throne of grace, but it doesn't seem to be in seeking forgiveness of sins.
One might expect the opposite, in fact. It doesn't seem to be a right attitude to approach, when needing forgiveness?