Hi Fejao,
Ruth 1:16-17 and 2:10-11, 1 Samuel 18:1, 1 Samuel 18:2, 1 Samuel 18:3-4, 1 Samuel 18:20-21, 1 Samuel 20:41, 2 Samuel 1:26, Daniel 1:9.
I don’t see anything even sexual in the Ruth and Daniel passages, nor are they subject of much interest in the scholarly debate at large.
You will see that 1 Samuel 18 starts by stating that David and Jonathan were at one in Spirit. Spiritually Jesus loves us doesn’t He?
You are correct that all kinds of things went on in the OT, I don’t think you can apply one OT spiritual relationship to your idea.
On this forum I have already more than once given lists of reference links discussing Boswell, JJ MacNeil, Scroggs, Wright, Petersen, Duckworth etc. The whole debate.
Is not what I asked and neither is it what you asked. You asked for references. However, the bible does address a man/woman faithful union as God’s purpose in creation, no alternative is given except celibacy. Love (agape) is described as required in the marriage but thats not sexual, the sexual is the union ‘one flesh’ as defined more than once by Jesus and the NT writers. Scripturally ‘faithful loving same-sex union’ is a false concept.
The only real definition of marriage is in Genesis which is a descriptive account and not a prescriptive as some like to use it, however it is only implied, it is nowhere explicated.
It is repeated by Jesus Matt 19 and Mark 10, Eph 5, 1 Cor 6. 'One flesh' Let no man separate what God has joined Jesus says. Jesus is referring to God’s reason in creation man and woman. Let lgcm not separate God’s reason.
You have to look to see what the Bible says. You cant dream up a concept like gay marriage and then see the scriptures doesnt mention it. They do however mention why there is no such thing.
The emperor Nero like other Romans had same-sex sex. The Romans were much more restricted in the practice but the Greeks often included it in their education. The Romans generally restricted it to slaves as the passive partner as the passive partner was despised. It is thought a Roman law was passed to restrict pederasty solely with slaves. Paul knew about Roman and Greek culture.
You refer to types of love agape, filea and eros, you imply I believe that these cannot be present between two people of the same sex in the sphere of marriage (filea/agape).
No. The NT writers’ use of the words is not entirely consistent in this way. What I meant was that Jesus doesn’t talk of a 'loving' faithful man/woman marriage.
Also may I add that quoting Lev, Romans etc in opposition of homosexuality and gay marriage in relation to this discussion is not helpful.
Well it is very helpful as it is precisely the condemnation that is written. Also 1 Cor 6 (and 5 & 7) and 1 Tim are probably septuagint Lev 18. Boswell’s work has been exposed as no more convincing on 1 Cor 6:9 than homosexual offenders, malakoi and arsenokoites as pederasty.
The scriptures are clear, there is a condemnation of same-sex sex in a variety of forms and outright Gen 19, Rom 1 state the act as perversion. Marriage is soley a faithful man/woman union as God's reason in creation and celibacy features as the only alternative.
There is no countennace for same-sex sex in any form.