2) Which law does Paul state the believer is not under?
So, my brothers and sisters,
you also died to the law through the body of Christ, that you might belong to another, to him who was raised from the dead, in order that we might bear fruit for God. 5
For when we were in the realm of the flesh,a]'>[a] the sinful passions aroused by the law were at work in us, so that we bore fruit for death. 6 But now, by dying to what once bound us,
we have been released from the law so that we serve in the new way of the Spirit, and not in the old way of the written code. Rom7:4-6
The above is quite plainly written. Paul is speaking of not being under the law(dying to righteousness of obeying it) He also says, sinfull passions are aroused by the law. So which law is Paul speaking of here? All of it, or some of it? Lets read on, for Paul continues, giving a personal example from his own life as to why he had to die to the law:
What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust,
except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.
8
But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, wrought in me all manner of concupiscence. For without the law sin was dead.
9 For I was alive without the law once: but when the commandment came, sin revived, and I died.
10 And the commandment, which was ordained to life, I found to be unto death.
11 For sin, taking occasion by the commandment, deceived me, and by it slew me. 7-11
The example Paul gave as to why he had to die to the law/not be under it came from the moral law: Thou shalt not covet. And this was the law, where sinfull passions were aroused in him by the law(verse8)
