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It's not nonsensical to me because I don't believe that verses 9-11 are referring primarily or only to Revelation 19:11-21 (let's ignore Revelation 20:11-15 for the minute).
I believe the judgment of the beast of Revelation 13:1-2 is a secondary fulfillment, or (the) second fulfillment of the prophecy. The primary fulfillment was the judgment of the kingdom of Antiochus IV - which the lion, leopard and bear outlived.
I believe that Daniel projects the judgment of Antiochus IV's Seleucid Empire forward to the final empire of the last-days beast of Revelation 13:1-2,
and the last days beast of Revelation 13:1-2 incorporates the lion, the leopard and the bear ("the rest of the beasts") that outlived the judgment of Antiochus IV and his Seleucid Empire.
I do not believe Daniel 7 is talking about the Roman Empire.
So I believe that the ten toes of the image in Daniel chapter 2 and ten kings of Daniel chapter 7 are (were) the same, and Daniel is projecting them (the ten kings), together with the little horn rising up among them, forward to the final kingdom of "The Antichrist" introduced in Revelation 13:1-2. It's a second fulfillment. Not the first.
I think you interpret Daniel's 4th beast as referring only to the beast of Revelation 13 instead of primarily to the Seleucid Empire of Antiochus IV and secondly and lastly to the beast of Revelation 13, and this is why you can't see how "the rest of the beasts" could be referring to the same lion, leopard and bear that outlived the judgment of Antiochus IV and his Seleucid Empire but will not outlive the judgment of the beast of Revelation 13.
Historically, the lion, leopard and bear way outlived the judgment of the 4th kingdom - and this is why the second fulfillment of the prophecy incorporates all three of those kingdoms (Revelation 11:1-2).
So I believe that they will therefore be judged with the beast of Revelation 13:1-2, as per Revelation 19:11-21. I do not believe Daniel 7:12 is telling us that the rest of the beasts refer to beasts not mentioned either in Daniel 7:3-6, or in Revelation 13:1-2.
The thrones (plural) seen as being thrown up in Daniel 7:9 could be the same as the thrones (plural) of Revelation 20:4, because as you (correctly, I believe) point out, the wording is the same and is found only in these two verses in the Bible:
"I watched, and that horn made war with the saints and overcame them, until the Ancient of Days came, and judgment was given to the saints of the Most High. And the time came that the saints possessed the kingdom. (Daniel 9:21-22).
"And I saw thrones, and they sat on them, and judgment was given to them. And I saw the souls of those who had been beheaded for the witness of Jesus and for the Word of God, and who had not worshiped the beast nor his image, nor had received his mark on their foreheads, nor in their hands. And they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years." (Revelation 20:4).
It's also thrones (plural) being thrown up in Daniel 7:9.
So again, I believe that the saints in the first fulfillment referred to the Maccabees and those who fought with them, but the saints in the second and final fulfillment of the prophecy refer to the saints who follow Christ on white horses in Revelation 19:11-21.
The Great White Throne speaks of only ONE throne, whereas Daniel 7:9 and Revelation 20:4 both speaks of thrones (plural). I do not believe that those over whom the saints will reign with Christ a thousand years refers to "the rest of the beasts" of Daniel 7:12 because as per Revelation 19:14 and Revelation 17:14, the saints will be with Christ when they (the lion, leopard and bear) are judged by Christ with the beast of Revelation 23:1-2.
It's only because Daniel 7:10 mentions the books being opened that I question or consider that the Great White Throne (singular) of Revelation 20:11-15 may be referring to the same (Premillennial) judgment of the beast which incorporates "the rest of the beasts" (the lion, leopard and bear). But I could be wrong. So I'm still just speculating, though I don't believe I'm entirely wrong and I don't believe that you are entirely wrong either.
I don't see how you or anyone see it making sense that Daniel 7, from verse 7 through verse 27, is involving a time period prior to the time period verse 13 is involving? Like I already pointed out in another post, the coming of Christ, according to the NT, involves 3 phases. Currently we are in the 2nd phase still awaiting the 3rd phase.
The 3 phases
1) when He was initially bodily born
2) When He ascended bodily back to heaven
3) When He bodily returns in the end of this age
Currently we are in phase 2. And IMO, maybe because I bring no bias to the text via what past Commentators have concluded, etc, I only see Daniel 7:7-27 involving the 2nd and 3rd stage. There couldn't possibly be anything in Daniel 7:7-27 involving the first phase, meaning from the time He was born until He ascended back to heaven, therefore, it should be equally true that nothing in Daniel 7:7-27 is involving a period of time prior to the first phase.
What I then ask myself, why would Daniel 7:7-27 focus on a time prior to the first phase, then skip the first phase altogether, then focus on the 2nd and 3rd phase? Since I don't see that being reasonable, I see it being more likely that Daniel 7:7-27 is only focusing on the 2nd and 3rd stage.
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