You said that "all" in Hebrews 2:9 needs no interpretation. Now you deny that "all" in 1 Cor. 15:22 needs no interpretation. Yet you interpreted the "all" in clause 2 differently from the "all" in clause 1. You INTERPRETED.
Who wouldn't think they refer to different groups?
Do you think people here were born yesterday?
I don't know. Several days ago, maybe?
One of the translations I provided for 1 Cor. 15:22 says "everyone" in both clauses. Yet you interpret "everyone" in the first clause as "every human being," but not in the second clause. You INTERPRETED. I rest my case.
OK, some here may need a rest. That's ok. The sentence itself clearly indicates different groups. It doesn't take "interpretation".
Based upon the Protestant "Line upon line" principle of interpretation I interpret the "all" in Hebrews 2:9 as "the many sons of glory" of verse 10. You cannot disprove my interpretation.
Yes, easily disproved. v.9 follows v.8 and is in THAT context, not in the context of the next paragraph starting in v.10.
Note the beginning word in v.9, "de" in the Greek. This is what my lexicon says about it:
"a conjunctive particle, marking the superaddition of a clause, whether in opposition or in continuation, to
what has preceded, and it may be variously rendered
but, on the other hand, and, also, now, etc."
What is important is what I bolded for emphasis: "what has preceded". So, what just preceded v.9? v.8 of course, where the author used "pas" 3 times while quoting from Psa 8, which was about mankind being over ALL creation. The contrast between v.8 and v.9 is that while man was put over ALL of creation, Jesus died for all of humanity.
That is proper exegesis. Your attempt to force v.9 into v.10 violates the Greek conjunctive participle and is a blatant attempt at eisegesis.
Thank you for your assisting me in disproving you.
I will be happy to hand over a napkin with which to wipe off all that egg on the face.
Your eisegesis does not hold up to my exegesis.