?? That is why I asked you about 1 Thess 4:13-18! If you read it and take it "literally"
AS IT IS WRITTEN WITHOUT ADDING ANYTHING TO THE TEXT then, if you honestly adhere to
"rightly dividing the word of truth*" (according to Vine's definition below); those verses do not reveal a "raptured church, nor a 1,000 millennium" in them. Dispensationalism, via JND's method of teaching, inserts that theory that you seem to hold to in order make the false theology work.
You claimed that you "interpret scripture literally" now show me that you do in 1 Thess and then we can move on to Matthew.
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*Strong's Number: g3718
Greek: orthotomeo
Divide, Divider, Dividing:
lit., "to cut straight" (orthos, "straight," temno, "to cut"), is found in 2Ti 2:15, AV, "rightly dividing," RV, "handling aright" (the word of truth); the meaning passed from the idea of cutting or "dividing," to the more general sense of "rightly dealing with a thing."
What is intended here is not "dividing" Scripture from Scripture, but teaching Scripture accurately.
(bold, italics and underlines are mine.)
Amill cannot use 1 Thessalonians 4 to claim anything about what John wrote in Revelation 20. Paul was not addressing Revelation 20. Paul was talking about the Second Coming.
13 But I would not have you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning them which are asleep, that ye sorrow not, even as others which have no hope.
14 For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so them also which sleep in Jesus will God bring with him.
15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.
16 For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:
17 Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.
18 Wherefore comfort one another with these words.
Where is Paul indicating this would happen in 1900+ years? Has it been 1900+ years since Paul wrote this? We are looking back in hind sight. Paul was not indicating any time frame nor a time frame of 1000 years after this event. Amill cannot use this passage to refute Revelation 20, nor use Paul to prove their interpretation of Revelation 20. When the Second Coming happens it is not post any prophetic millenia. No NT author prophecied any millenia would happen between the first century and the Second Coming.
The only prophecy is from Daniel, and even that is not a settled time frame. Daniel 12:4-7
4 But thou, O Daniel, shut up the words, and seal the book, even to the time of the end: many shall run to and fro, and knowledge shall be increased.
5 Then I Daniel looked, and, behold, there stood other two, the one on this side of the bank of the river, and the other on that side of the bank of the river.
6 And one said to the man clothed in linen, which was upon the waters of the river, How long shall it be to the end of these wonders?
7 And I heard the man clothed in linen, which was upon the waters of the river, when he held up his right hand and his left hand unto heaven, and sware by him that liveth for ever that it shall be for a time, times, and an half; and when he shall have accomplished to scatter the power of the holy people, all these things shall be finished.
What time frame is time, times, and half a times? Seconds, minutes, hours, days, weeks, months, years, decades, centuries, or millenia?
Did John see the same "time keeper"? Revelation 10:5-7
5 And the angel which I saw stand upon the sea and upon the earth lifted up his hand to heaven,
6 And sware by him that liveth for ever and ever, who created heaven, and the things that therein are, and the earth, and the things that therein are, and the sea, and the things which are therein, that there should be time no longer:
7 But in the days of the voice of the seventh angel, when he shall begin to sound, the mystery of God should be finished, as he hath declared to his servants the prophets.
This angel declared time was up. The time in Daniel 9 or the time in Daniel 12? Daniel 9 was only 490 years. Is time, times, and half a time; only the 490 years? 140 years is a time. 280 years is times. 70 years is half a time. But what does that prove? All but 7 years were over before Jesus was baptized. This does not explain the last 1991 years one bit. Neither does it explain Revelation 20. So claiming a point that takes Revelation 20 out of context, renders it insignificant, makes it say something it does not in relationship to the first century, is only human opinion, definitely not God's Word.