revelation 11:1-2 clearly makes a distinction between the temple (naos) and the outer court and city of Jerusalem.
Yes but in the New Testament,
up until Jesus died on the cross, this distinction was always made in the temple at Jerusalem
also, by use of the Greek words
naos for the holy place, and
hieron for the outer court, separating the holy (the holy court and sanctuary, i.e
naos) from the "not holy" (i.e
hieron). Let's call it
the profane.
But this distinction between the profane and the holy with regards to the temple at Jerusalem
stopped being made after the veil was torn.
From then on the distinction was made between
i. The holy place (the church, and only the church now being called the naos, i.e the holy place and holy holies), and
ii. The temple at Jerusalem (from now only called the
hieron, regardless of whether or not what was previously considered the holy place, is being spoken of).
The temple that still stood at Jerusalem after Christ's death was no longer considered the holy place by God. The city where the people lived was likewise no longer considered the holy city by God.
Christians understand this.
I'll say that again:
Christians understand this.
1. What year was the temple destroyed?
70 A.D
2. How long before the temple was destroyed was the veil in the
naos torn in two?
Around 40 years before, circa 30 A.D
3. Why does the Greek New Testament stop using the word
naos in reference to the Jerusalem temple after the verses (in each of the three synoptic gospels) which mention the tearing of the veil?
Because the Jerusalem temple was no longer considered the holy place.
The church was.
4. Why does the Greek New Testament only use the word
naos in reference to
the church after Jesus died on the cross, even though the temple still stood for another 40 years after the veil was torn?
Because of (3) above.
5. Why, after the tearing of the veil, does the Greek use only the word
hieron whenever the temple in Jerusalem is being mentioned?
Because of (3) above.
6. Why does the Revelation call the New Jerusalem
the holy city three times, and Jerusalem on earth "Sodom and Egypt"?
Because Jerusalem was no longer considered
the holy city after Christ died. The spiritual city which is made up of the souls of the saints on earth and in heaven became
the only city considered
the holy city by God.
Again,
Christians understand this.
The difference between the Old Testament times and New Testament times,
as far as the citizens of the nation are concerned, is that those
in Christ (the Greek used the word
naos in reference to Christ's body when He mentioned His own body as the temple) are in
a New Testament Temple.
The Jerusalem which Paul said was in bondage with her children and which Revelation calls
Sodom and Egypt was not considered
the holy city anymore, any more than the temple which remained there till 70 A.D was considered
the holy place or
sanctuary of God (
i.e naos) after Christ died on the cross and the veil was torn in two.
The outer court was always called
hieron, i.e it was never considered part of the sanctuary, which was called naos. Not even before the death of Christ.
Since the saints exist only in Christ, i.e in the naos, why would the outer court not be left out of being measured in Revelation 11:1-2?
Why would Jerusalem on earth be regarded as
the holy city when:
1. Paul said she was in bondage with her children; and
2. Revelation calls her "Sodom and Egypt"; and
3. Revelation calls
the city of the saints who are in Christ the holy city three
times?
Can you answer the above questions
without answering them with your own questions, please?