fhansen said:
↑
Yes, faith is both a gift-
and a very human act
as we respond to and embrace that gift.
First, you are incorrectly implying that someone who was "
chosen"
or "
elected" before the foundation of the world could be
LOST...
when
JESUS PROMISES that He will lose
NONE.
You clearly contradict Jesus.
No I don't. He knows who they are-while we do not
with 100% certainty.
Well, please excuse me if I misunderstood your meaning.
But, when some says (as you did) that "
faith' is not only a gift
but also contingent on something
WE DO... then, with only that
information, it appears that MEN can choose to accept or reject
God given "
faith", and that is not possible, according to Jesus.
When you said (and I quote you) "...
as we respond to and
embrace that gift." That implies that MEN can choose to NOT
accept the "faith" God has given them, that the will of man is
greater than the Will of God, and that is complete nonsense.
That implies that men can STOP GOD from regenerating them.
What Scripture can you offer to support such a notion? Without
presenting Scripture, you are only expressing your "feelings" or
offering you "opinion" and I want to deal with neither.
Now, why in the world would I care
WHAT St Augustine said
when I have (a) the Bible and (b) the "
indwelling" spirit that
TEACHES me everything I need to know? Augustine was a
fallible man. I am a follower of the Bible, not any man.
We cannot possibly be saved apart from Him- but we can still refuse to be saved. Christianity 101.
That is so untrue.
You are saying someone
GOD ELECTED TO SAVE before time,
can overcome God's purpose
in time... making God a failure.
That is ridiculous. God cannot EVER FAIL to accomplish His
purpose.
THAT is Christianity 101... you have ADDED
your "feelings" or "opinion" to the Word of God.
But, if I am wrong, just provide
SCRIPTURE that teaches that
any of God's "
chosen" or "
elected" (before time) can somehow
OVERCOME GOD'S PURPOSE (in time). Give chapter and verse.
No sin would ever have entered God's creation to begin with-or continue to prevail- if not for this freedom of human and angelic choice.
(1) First, we are talking about humans, so let's not conflate the
issue by introducing Angels into the discussion.
(2) Secondly, we are not talking about God's creation of man
BEFORE the fall, we are talking about man
AFTER the fall.
So let's not conflate these two issues.
(3) Finally, you are
ASSUMING that sin results from our "free will"
without even
DEFINING your meaning of "free will". The Bible does
NOT teach that Adam had a sinful nature, but it teaches fallen man does.
We we cannot pretend Adam's "free will" is the same as our "free will".
So, you will have to
DEFINE what you mean by "free will" because the
Bible teaches that
FALLEN MAN has a sin nature and we sin "freely".
Un-regenerated men
WANT to sin, we (are slaves to Satan and we)
sin of our own "free will".
Both the OT and NT
PROMISE that (unregenerated) man will
NEVER "
seek God", or do any good,
no, not even one.
Without regeneration we have a "
heart of stone" and
EVERYTHING we do is as "
filthy rags".
What is this "freedom" you speak of?
Do you not know that
JESUS revealed that some men were
NEVER MEANT to "
perceive" or to "
understand" the Gospel
and they were
NEVER MEANT to "
be conformed" or to ever
"
have their sins forgiven"?
Please explain to me
HOW such men have the "freedom" to
"
choose" to have saving "
faith" when they were
NEVER MEANT
to "
have their sins forgiven"?
... is never completely overridden by God-because He wants
our right choice; that's why He gave man freedom to begin with.
You are
ADDING to Scripture. You are expressing your "feelings"
and you "opinion", and nothing more.
Again, please tell me
WHERE is this "freedom" you speak of in men
NEVER MEANT to "
perceive" or "
understand" the Gospel,
or "
be converted" or "
have their sins forgiven"?
You are arguing that men who were
NEVER MEANT to be saved
somehow have the "free will" to save themselves. This notion
is not found in the Bible... you
ADDED it to the Bible.
BTW:
I am not arguing that men don't have the "freedom" to choose
to wear white socks or black socks... of course men have their
"free will"
in secular matters. But we are talking about spiritual
matters and
FALLEN MEN do not possess the "free will" to ever
"
seek God" or do any good... until
AFTER regeneration.
Only grace can free us from this slavery-and yet, as said, we can still resist that grace.
I understand that is your "feeling" or your "opinion" (apparently)
taught to you by some
MEN. I am only asking you to
PROVE
that notion by providing
SCRIPTURE that says those who
God has "
chosen" or "
elected" (before time) can really
OVERCOME His Purpose (in time). Send Scripture
teaching God can
FAIL to achieve His Purpose.
As we have already seen in Scripture
[Mark 4:12] some men
were
NEVER MEANT to "
have their sins forgiven" (be saved)
so they are never given saving Grace to "resist"... the
CONTEXT
of our discussion is then
LIMITED to those men God has "
chosen"
or "
elected" (before time). Can any of these men overcome what
God has purposed (in time)... making God a
FAILURE and subject
to the will of these men?
Again, you can
PROVE your theory by simply showing (in Scripture)
where it teaches men "
chosen" or "
elected" (before time)
can
NOT be saved (in time).
That's the reason for....
You do not get to argue about the
RESULT of something
you have not already
PROVEN your theory to be Biblical.
FIRST you need to prove your theory is supported by
SCRIPTURE
(not "feelings" or "opinions") and
THEN you can argue about
the
RESULTS of that Biblical teaching.
"You see that a person is considered righteous by what they do and not by faith alone." James 2:24
First, thank you for finally offering some SCRIPTURE.
Secondly, now we need to find the
CONTEXT of that Scripture.
(a) is James 2:24 talking to men who are regenerated? If so,
then those (good) works are the
RESULT of them already being
regenerated (not the cause). So it is the "
fruit" of saved men is
they will demonstrate that salvation with their "
good works".
So, we cannot imply this
CONTEXT to un-regenerated men.
Php 2:12-13
Wherefore,
my beloved,
[the elect] as ye have always obeyed,
not as in my presence only, but now much more in my absence,
work out your own salvation with fear and trembling.
For it is God
which worketh in you both to will and to do of his good pleasure.
(b) is James 2:24 talking to men who were
NEVER MEANT to be
able to "
perceive" or "
understand" the Gospel or "
be forgiven"
or "
have their sins forgiven". Or, are these men NOT INCLUDED
in the
CONTEXT of the verse?
Mar 4:11-12
And he said unto them
[His disciples],
Unto you it is given
to know the mystery of the Kingdom of God: but unto them
that
are without [the Kingdom of God], all these things are done
in parables: That seeing they may see,
and not perceive; and
hearing they may hear,
and not understand;
LEST AT ANY TIME
they should be converted,
and their sins should be forgiven them.
(c) is James 2:24 talking to "
natural men" (before regeneration)?
if so, that would be a
CONTRADICTION to Scripture insisting, in
both the OT and NT, that "
natural men" will
NEVER "
seek God"
or do "
any good". Is "
natural man" the
CONTEXT of the verse?
1Co_2:14
But the
natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God:
for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them,
because they are spiritually discerned.
Rom 3:10-12
As it is written [in Psalms], There is
none righteous, no, not one:
There is
none that understandeth,
there is none that seeketh
after God. They are all gone out of the way, they are together become unprofitable;
there is none that doeth good, no, not one.
With regard to James 2:24 (or
ANY passage of Scripture)
If we are not able to discern the
CONTEXT of the passage then
we have no hope of ever understanding the
MEANING of the verses.
You cannot take passages where the
CONTEXT is the elect/saved
and apply those verses to "
natural man" or those
NEVER MEANT
to "
have their sins forgiven". Again, this is Christianity 101.
Jim