zippy2006
Dragonsworn
- Nov 9, 2013
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Yes. I asked how he would answer the question Malebranche is answering and he said, "Christian faith and philosophy differ primarily because [philosophical schools differ]." This is evasive; he is misconstruing the question at hand into something vacuous. After that he started speaking about change instead of difference, which he hasn't yet recognized are two different things.But, do you really think PH is being evasive?
Analogously, if I had asked, "What is the difference between the United States and Europe?," the answer would have been, "The United States and Europe differ primarily because European countries differ."
If he has not been evasive then what is his answer to the obvious and straightforward question I posed to him? Has he given a clear answer that I have overlooked?
"There is such a thing as obscuration in regard to one's own 'actual objectivity,' therefore it's time to leave Aristotle and Ptolemy over in the shadows." I don't follow this argument at all.Mmmmmmmmmmmmm............................. It's time to leave Aristotle and Ptolemy over in the shadows, mainly because there is such a thing as obscuration in regard to one's own "actual objectivity."
Is this not straightforward ad hominem? It is casting aspersions, this time with respect to Aristotle.I mean, we're talking about the man who taught Alexander the Great. I don't necessarily see that as a "plus of virtue."
I realize this is only CF, but I'm hoping that every once in awhile there can be a thread where serious thinking takes place.
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