tdidymas
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I don't get what you're saying here. You said:Yes, I agree with most all that you have offered. However it is more than that, specifically, that people who claim that by the phrase "the works of the Law" Paul means the whole Torah are just flat out wrong. Paul makes this clear by what he says in the OP passage, that is, very strongly implying that what he means by "the works of the Law" pertains to works of the flesh or deeds of the body: the outward physical works of which, (for example), outward physical circumcision is really the first such work and misdirects a disciple or adherent down the wrong path, and which is doubtless why Paul rails against physical circumcision so much more than all the other outward physical things in Pharisaic Torah interpretations.
The phrase "works of the Law" was a familiar term in first century Judaism and among Yhudim in general. However the Pharisaic-Sadducaic outward physical way of understanding "the works of the Law" was not the only way of understanding the Torah. As Yosephus informs us, there were four main sects in Yisrael in the first century: the Perushim, (Pharisees), the Zaddokim, (Sadducees), the Zealots, and the Hessenim, (Essenes). The Hessenim were almost no doubt those at what is now called Khirbet Qumran. Of the scrolls and fragments recovered from the caves at Qumran we actually have one fragment which mentions this phrase, ("the works of the Law"), and the context wherein it is used is very revealing in light of the fact that this Community vehemently disagreed with the Pharisees and Sadducees at Yerushelm in doctrine, and especially when it came to the animal sacrifices and interpretations of the Torah, (they were essentially either vegetarians or pescatarians, (fish only as far as meat)).
Geza Vermes translated the fragment where this phrase was found:
QUOTE:]
Florilegium or Midrash on the Last Days
(4Q174) This collection of texts assembled from 2 Samuel and the Psalter, and combined with other scriptural passages, serves to present the sectarian doctrine identifying the Community with the Temple, and to announce the coming of the two Messiahs, the ‘Branch of David’ and the ‘Interpreter of the Law’. Originating from Cave 4 (4Q174) and known also as ‘Florilegium’, it probably belongs to the late first century BCE. For the editio princeps, see J. M. Allegro and A. A. Anderson, DJD, V, 53-7.
I ... [I will appoint a place for my people Israel and will plant them that they may dwell there and be troubled no more by their] enemies. No son of iniquity [shall afflict them again] as formerly, from the day that [I set judges] over my people Israel (2 Sam. vii, 10). This is the House which [He will build for them in the] last days, as it is written in the book of Moses, In the sanctuary which Thy hands have established, O Lord, the Lord shall reign for ever and ever (Exod. xv, 17-18). This is the House into which [the unclean shall] never [enter, nor the uncircumcised,] nor the Ammonite, nor the Moabite, nor the half-breed, nor the foreigner, nor the stranger, ever; for there shall My Holy Ones be. [Its glory shall endure] for ever; it shall appear above it perpetually And strangers shall lay it waste no more, as they formerly laid waste the Sanctuary of Israel because of its sin. He has commanded that a Sanctuary of men be built for Himself, that there they may send up, like the smoke of incense, the works of the Law.
— Geza Vermes, The Complete Dead Sea Scrolls in English
[END QUOTE.
Note the final line, (bold red highlighting is mine), which contains the phrase, "the works of the Law". It may clearly be seen by the context herein that the understanding of the one who penned this was surely not the same as the Pharisaic-Sadducaic view of "the works of the Law" described by Paul: for the text speaks of sending up prayers, ("like the smoke of incense"), as if the prayers themselves either contain or are themselves "the works of the Law" which the worshiper is sending up before the Most High. This author has a correct interpretation-understanding.
It's unclear if you are saying that those people claim the Torah itself is the works, or that their obedience to the Torah is the works. Which is it?people who claim that by the phrase "the works of the Law" Paul means the whole Torah are just flat out wrong.
Further, you claim that Paul clearly says that works of the law means deeds of the body. Here, I assume you mean that these works are deeds done in the body which are consistent with God's revealed moral will (such as the 10 Commandments), as opposed to deeds done in the body that are called "sin." Is this your meaning?
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