What Hebrew word? You quoted a made up nonsense word as if it had meaning in Hebrew.
I gave you the Stong's number for the Hebrew word so you can go look it up yourself.
Your complaint was that the Hebrew word was a bastardized English translation out of German. I said that it doesn't matter what it was translated as; go look at the original word.
The word:
Now I can't take credit for making up that word. The writers of the King James "made up" that word.
Maybe the mistranslated Hebrew word does mean ‘gods flag’ or whatever, it doesn’t matter.
And so..... if it doesn't matter; why are you making a stink over it?
You really think you know more than the experts behind literally every English translation I’ve seen? Not one translation says ‘kill boy animals not humans’ yet you say it’s implied in Hebrew... I don’t see it at all.
Would the reference out of Blueletterbible.org or Biblehub.com help?
Why was it only killing the male animals? I'd have to research that too. My guess would be that because Israel was told to bring the first born male of their flocks as a sacrifice; that that had something to do with killing the male animals.
You’ve called me “evil”, “wicked hearted”, “ignorant” and a host of other horribly insulting names... yet you just said you would kill babies if god wants revenge on their parents.
Again, you misquote me as you misquote Scripture.
So if the Lakota killed all of my ancestors including the little babies - and God says "Let vengeance be Mine" and uses human agents to execute that vengeance?
No - I don't have a problem with that!
Matter of fact; it happens all the time. God uses nations to wipe out other nations. We are all guilty of sin. If I die in such a genocide; "To be absent from the body is to be present with the Lord!"
I don't understand half of why things happen in this world the way they do; but God is still just and He is still good. And only being woke by the Holy Ghost would ever make you acknowledge that!
Which just like you're misquoting me; here's the example of where you misquoted the Scripture:
You can’t punish babies for the crimes of their great, great, great, great, great, great, great, great, great, great, great, great, great, great, great, great, great, great grandfathers. (Yes that’s an appropriate amount of “great”s)
Israel killing Amelak happened in the same generation as Amelak attacking Israel in the wilderness. The reconciliation between Jacob and Esau had happened "great, great, great.... grandfathers" ago.
(Again, another obvious demonstration of your lack of knowledge of Scripture.)
So this begs the question; what ever would possess a tribe of people who's forefathers made peace to attack those they'd made peace with? AND to do so at the point these people were in danger of dying in the desert due to dehydration?
This would be like Britain gets hit with a massive category 5 hurricane. The storm is suddenly and miraculously deflected back into the ocean before it has wiped everyone off the islands; yet then the US sends squadrons of bombers and carpet bombs Britain..... Why? We'd been at peace for generations; why would we attack Britain. So in retaliation the British launch nuclear weapons at us. Thirty years later Canada invades and takes over the US. And "North America" becomes "North Canada" and "Mexico".
Now explain to me how that makes any sense and why we wouldn't DESERVE to be nuked for a stupid move like that?
And if I was the person in charge of making the decision to drop the nuke; would I do it if God directly told me to? Yes I would.
Now do I believe that in this course of history (where we are in God's redemptive plan) that God would directly tell me to nuke another country; no I don't.
Why did God tell Israel in the case of Amelak to wipe everyone out; when clearly that was not the normal rules of engagement?
They didn't kill all the Midianites.
We also see that they did not kill the people who surrendered. We see this evidenced by the fact that Uriah and Bathsheba in the days of King David were a foreign couple. They weren't separated as a couple by a "government dictated policy". (David's sin was on his own head.) They weren't slaves. They weren't denied rights, or denied housing, or wages Uriah would have received as a member of Israel's army. With exception of David's own sin; Uriah and Bathsheba were treated fairly.
Rahab the harlot and her family were treated fairly (They'd surrendered when Jericho was sieged.)
Ruth, who was from Moab was treated fairly. Boas married Ruth as the "kinsmen redeemer" to Naomi, even though he had no tribal obligation to Ruth because she was not a Hebrew.
So why was all of Amalek killed?
Genesis 15:16 gives us a clue. When the sin of a nation becomes "full" then it's destruction befalls it. This has happened with countless nations; including Israel! All the Jews who had not converted to Christianity and left the area like Jesus had warned them would happen; were destroyed by the Roman army. EVERYONE - man woman and child!
Yet God is not slack to warn people that the destruction is coming if they don't repent!
Now when God decides a people's iniquity is full and their destruction is imminent; is upon His prerogative. I will not presume upon God's decision making processes that I know better than He does as to when judgement should befall a nation. (My own included.)
Noah's flood wiped out EVERY land based life form that was not in the ark.
That's quite a statement about God's power to execute the decisions He makes. I'm not going to argue with Him. I'm not God.
This is disgusting. There’s nothing else I can say.
There's nothing else you SHOULD say! Like Job; place your hand over your mouth and shut up.
This principle is only "disgusting" to you because you want to believe you are more righteous then God.