Annihilationism Is Actually...Biblical

[ClementofA]

A whole lot of folderol but how does this address my question about how most, 66%+, criminals today act when they have been punished for their crimes and how these same people will react when God punishes them for their sins. Will those who hate and reject God now be filled with warm fuzzies and love when God punishes them in fire for any period of time?

If you had read post 672 a few posts above this one you'ld have been enlightened that i had already answered that.

100 Scriptural Proofs That Jesus Christ Will Save All Mankind
100 Scriptural Proofs That Jesus Christ Will Save All Mankind

 

[ClementofA]

Take it from me then, an Annihilationist:

If God is a monster for killing people in Hell,

"was God a monster when He destroyed all life on earth; men, women, young, old, children, infants except for Noah and his family? Was God a monster when He destroyed all the inhabitants of Sodom, Gomorrah and the cities of the plain; men, women, young, old, children, infants except for Lot and his family? Was God a monster when He commanded Israel to go into certain cities and kill all the inhabitants; men, women, young, old, children, infants?"

No, almost everyone suffers and dies. Paul spoke of his sufferings as light & momentary. How do yours compare to his? How do light, momentary sufferings compare to endless nonexistence after sadistic tortures in hell? That's a long time. Even a trillion X trillion X trillion millenniums is nothing next to an eternity of being nothing, lifeless, nonexistent. Better to be in hell suffering for trillions of eons & then saved for eternity than to be nonexistent forever. Unbelievers consider such an endless punishment insane, unloving & unjust of a God whom Christians claim is Love Omnipotent & it has driven many Christians to the nut house where they lost their minds.

 

[ClementofA]

I don't see any verses stating that anyone will be reconciled after death. Not one. Sorry.

What do you "see" here:

16 For by Him ***ALL*** was created that are in HEAVEN and that are on EARTH, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers. All was created through Him and for Him.
20 and by Him to reconcile ***ALL*** to Himself, by Him, whether on EARTH or in HEAVEN, having made peace through the blood of His cross.

 

[ClementofA]

How about a verse that says something like, "After the resurrection, some will see God and will be saved."

It seems they will "come to Him" & "be ashamed" of themselves:

Isa.45:24 The people will declare, "The LORD is the source of all my righteousness and strength." And all who were angry with him will come to him and be ashamed.

And he that "comes to Him" shall find rest & He shall not cast out (Mt.11:28; Jn.6:37).

Isa.45:23 I have sworn by myself, the word is gone out of my mouth in righteousness, and shall not return, That unto me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear.

1 Cor.15:22-28: As in Adam all die

Phil.2:9-11; Rom.5:18-19; Isa.45:21-25; Eph.1:10, etc

Christian universalism--Ultimate Reconcilation: The True "Good News" Gospel of the Bible

"Once their sin has been burned up and they have repented from their ways, they will come out of the lake of fire and will be redeemed."

"The punishment for sin is torture in the lake of fire. Those cast there will be punished for their sins before they are redeemed."

"Every man will be saved, whether he repents on earth or in hell."

Is it not reasonable to wonder why none of these verses or anything like them are found in scripture?

It's no wonder since there are relatively a very rare number of Scriptures that address postmortem life relative to the Bible as a whole.

1 Pet.3:18b He was put to death in the body, but made alive in the spirit, 19 in which He also went and preached to the spirits in prison 20a who disobeyed long ago when God waited patiently in the days of Noah, while the ark was being built.
4:6 For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.

Matt 5:25-26 . .Come to terms quickly with your adversary before it is too late and you are dragged into court, handed over to an officer, and thrown in jail. I assure you that you won't be free again until you have paid the last penny.

That was spoken of by Jesus in the context of references to Gehenna, both before and after the passage. Similarly:

Mat 18:34 And his lord was wroth, and delivered him to the tormentors, till he should pay all that was due unto him.

Lk.12:46 The master of that servant will come on a day when he does not expect him, and at an hour of which he is unaware. Then He will cut him to pieces and assign him a place with the unbelievers. 47 That servant who knows his master’s will but does not get ready or follow his instructions will be beaten with many blows. 48 But the one who unknowingly does things worthy of punishment will be beaten with few blows. From everyone who has been given much, much will be required; and from him who has been entrusted with much, even more will be demanded

1 Cor.3:12 Now if any man build upon this foundation gold, silver, precious stones, wood, hay, stubble; 13 Every man's work shall be made manifest: for the day shall declare it, because it shall be revealed by fire; and the fire shall try every man's work of what sort it is. 14 If any man's work abide which he hath built thereupon, he shall receive a reward. 15 If any man's work shall be burned, he shall suffer loss: but he himself shall be saved; yet so as by fire.

Compare:

Mal.3:2 But who may abide the day of his coming? and who shall stand when he appeareth? for he is like a refiner's fire, and like fullers' soap: 3 And he shall sit as a refiner and purifier of silver: and he shall purify the sons of Levi, and purge them as gold and silver, that they may offer unto the LORD an offering in righteousness.

Isa.45:21 Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD? and there is no God else beside me; a just God and a Saviour; there is none beside me.

22 Look unto me, and be ye saved, all the ends of the earth: for I am God, and there is none else.

23 I have sworn by myself, the word is gone out of my mouth in righteousness, and shall not return, That unto me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear.

24 Surely, shall one say, in the LORD have I righteousness and strength: even to him shall men come; and all that are incensed against him shall be ashamed.

Lk.15:3 And he spake this parable unto them, saying, 4 What man of you, having an hundred sheep, if he lose one of them, doth not leave the ninety and nine in the wilderness, and go after that which is lost, until he find it? 5 And when he hath found it, he layeth it on his shoulders, rejoicing. 6 And when he cometh home, he calleth together his friends and neighbours, saying unto them, Rejoice with me; for I have found my sheep which was lost. 7 I say unto you, that likewise joy shall be in heaven over one sinner that repenteth, more than over ninety and nine just persons, which need no repentance.

8 Either what woman having ten pieces of silver, if she lose one piece, doth not light a candle, and sweep the house, and seek diligently till she find it? 9 And when she hath found it, she calleth herfriends and her neighbours together, saying, Rejoice with me; for I have found the piece which I had lost. 10 Likewise, I say unto you, there is joy in the presence of the angels of God over one sinner that repenteth.

"For as in Adam all die..." - this is a LIE if it means every last human will die - ask Elijah and the people who are still around for the second coming.

"...so in Christ all will be made alive" - why should we interpret this is "every last human" if we obviously cannot do so for the first?

So - if - there are a few exceptions, that doesn't deny the parallel. Did Hitler, Stalin & Judas Iscariot die? Then they will be made alive "in Christ", hence saved. The only exceptions are others who are saved as well. So that makes everyone saved.

Some interpreters consider Enoch & Elijah to be the two witnesses of God in the book of Revelation. They die. Some also believe those taken up in the rapture will die when they are being made immortal. After all, it is appointed unto men once to die (Heb.9:27), isn't it? Or do you consider that a lie?

I am genuinely saddened by this.

Where is there a verse that uses aidiois to express a finite period of time? Well, there are only TWO instances in the entire bible, so it is virtually impossible to know for sure what it means, because it is already such a rare word and we don't have many examples of it being used to tell us what it means and what it doesn't mean.

That being said, the verse that talks about "everlasting chains" definitely seems to be talking about chains that aren't literally eternal. However, it's not provable either way. It is quite ambiguous.

If you honestly don't understand why you can't use aidiois to prove Universalism, I strongly suggest you take a language class and educate yourself on proper hermeneutics. Like I said, I am genuinely saddened by this.

The NT has two occurrences of AIDIOS. The LXX has two more, as previously cited. Also posted was scholar Muraoka saying AIDIOS means "everlasting" in the LXX, while AIONIOS is ambiguous. Other scholars & lexicons could be added to the same conclusion, e.g. BDAG already posted by Der Alter. Further, the Pharisees expressed a belief in AIDIOS punishment, not AIONIOS punishment of the wicked. While Scripture & Jesus taught AIONIOS punishment. Moreover, the phrase "no end" is used in Scripture of God's years & His kingdom, but never of punishment. If God believed in endless punishment, He would have repeatedly used the two superior expressions (AIDIOS & "no end", instead of AIONIOS) to relate such a belief unambiguously.

aionios life, 2 UR views, eon/ian ends, millennial eon, 1 Jn.1:2, Chrysoston, Origen, dan 12 2-3:

how do people who believe in eternal torture in fire

 

[ClementofA]

Once again since you did not answer this what would the former pagan Christians, who had been taught about "hell," understand when Timothy read 2 Tim.2:24-25 to them? They did not have several Bibles on a laptop or tablet which they could whip out and look up all the verses which are usually thrown together to prove UR. .....In fact very few would even have a copy of this letter to refer to. Many of them could not even read. What would they understand when Timothy read "correcting those who are in opposition, if perhaps God may grant them repentance leading to the knowledge of the truth."

The letter was written to Timothy, not ex-pagans. So the more pertinent question is how Timothy would have understood Paul's remark in 2 Tim.2:24-25. The answer is in accord with Paul's teachings re universalism, e.g. Rom.5:18-19; 1 Cor.15:22-28; Phil.2:9-11; Eph.1:10; Col.1:16,20, 1 Tim.2:4-6; 4:9-11; etc.

So what would Timothy have taught these alleged ex-pagans? Exactly the same teaching of universalism that Paul taught.

How do you know Timothy read Paul's letter to Timothy to illiterate, uneducated ex-pagans who believed in some sort of a "hell"? Would that be a universalist type of "hell" or some horror-fantasy like Dante's Inferno or an annihilationist "hell" or something else? Were all converts to Christianity believers in a God or an afterlife, e.g. Sadducee types?

This verse does not support UR but contradicts it. If salvation was a done deal why did the writer say "perhaps God may grant them repentance leading to the knowledge of the truth? Instead of "God will certainly grant them repentance leading to the knowledge of the truth?"

Each time the "Lord's bond-servant" does what 2 Tim.2:24-25 says, it is possible "God may grant them repentance". The verse puts no time limit on when one may repent or the number of opportunities Love Omnipotent will grant people to repent, either in this life or postmortem. Therefore it does not contradict UR (universalism) & is perfectly in harmony with it as taught elsewhere in the Scriptures. God has all eternity & unlimited love & opportunities for repentance & salvation for His created beings. It's mathematically impossible anyone could reject him forever.

Evidently the Christian persecutor called Saul, who became the apostle Paul, had been refusing to repent, for when Christ appeared to him Jesus said to him it is hard to keep kicking against the goads. And why do you persecute Me?

2Tim.2:24 The Lord’s bond-servant must not be quarrelsome, but be kind to all, able to teach, patient when wronged, 25 with gentleness correcting those who are in opposition,
if perhaps God may grant them repentance leading to the knowledge of the truth,

 

[Der Alte]

begin

The letter was written to Timothy, not ex-pagans. So the more pertinent question is how Timothy would have understood Paul's remark in 2 Tim.2:24-25. The answer is in accord with Paul's teachings re universalism, e.g. Rom.5:18-19; 1 Cor.15:22-28; Phil.2:9-11; Eph.1:10; Col.1:16,20, 1 Tim.2:4-6; 4:9-11; etc.
So what would Timothy have taught these alleged ex-pagans? Exactly the same teaching of universalism that Paul taught.
How do you know Timothy read Paul's letter to Timothy to illiterate, uneducated ex-pagans who believed in some sort of a "hell"? Would that be a universalist type of "hell" or some horror-fantasy like Dante's Inferno or an annihilationist "hell" or something else? Were all converts to Christianity believers in a God or an afterlife, e.g. Sadducee types? ...

end

Timothy was the bishop of the church at Ephesus. Do you suppose that Timothy put Paul's letter away in a box somewhere and only took it out on special occasions, read it to himself and not to his congregation as Paul instructed him?

2 Timothy 2:1-2
(1) Thou therefore, my son, be strong in the grace that is in Christ Jesus.
(2) And the things that thou hast heard of me among many witnesses, the same commit thou to faithful men, who shall be able to teach others also.​

I keep reading over and over "hell was copied from pagan Greeks" Now you are arguing that the Greeks did not believe in hell?

The crowning achievement of literacy in Israel, the Hebrew Bible, aims to ennoble, not to destroy lives. In it, scribes explore the complex relationship between humans and God. From the second century B.C.E. into the Common Era, the Dead Sea Scrolls and works originating in Alexandria and elsewhere (the Apocrypha and Pseudepigrapha) continued this endeavor. Still, those who could read and write at this time—mostly men—made up a small percentage of the population.
James Crenshaw, "Literacy in the Ancient World", n.p. [cited 6 Apr 2018]. Online: https://www.bibleodyssey.org:443/en/places/related-articles/literacy-in-the-ancient-world
His sobering conclusions are that fifth-century Attica attained a literacy level of only 5 percent to 10 percent, and certain cities of the Hellenistic age like Rhodes formed the high point at 20 percent to 30 percent (the level reached by England in the period from 1580 to 1700), while literacy in the Roman Empire never achieved more than 15 percent.
Project MUSE - <i>Ancient Literacy</i> (review)​

 

[Butch5]

Hebrew Word Definitions - Eternity

[QUOTE Butch5, post #434] This doesn't have anything to do with what Jesus said. However, the word "everlasting" is incorrect. The Hebrew word Is the word owlam. It doesn't mean everlasting. Here's a link from the Ancient Hebrew Research Center that explains how the word owlam was used.[/QUOTE]

No Butch, it is not incorrect, absolutely. To me it seems that you know not who is the devouring fire or consuming fire or yet the everlasting burnings. [/QUOTE]

The word olam is used of finite periods of time. Therefore it cannot mean eternal.

 

[Butch5]

There are obviously multiple way of interpreting olam, aidiois, and ainoios. None of them mean true eternity every time.

Therefore, anyone who tries to use any of these three words to prove whether or not something is truly eternal or not is chasing after the wind.

So acknowledge that you can't win or lose ANYTHING by arguing about any of these three words.

They can all be EASILY interpreted BOTH ways.

No they can't. You can't have a word with opposing meanings. You can't have a word that means both yes and no. It's illogical and would be useless for communication. If aionios means both eternal and finite how do you determine which it is?

 

[ClementofA]

The word olam is used of finite periods of time. Therefore it cannot mean eternal.

The Greek word aion is used of finite periods of time. But it can mean "eternal" as it does in the phrase "the endless aion".

 

[ClementofA]

No they can't. You can't have a word with opposing meanings. You can't have a word that means both yes and no. It's illogical and would be useless for communication. If aionios means both eternal and finite how do you determine which it is?

By context. An "eon" can be either finite or infinte, but not both at once.

The English word "lasting" can mean either a finite duration or ever-lasting, depending on the context.

"The word "ciao is an informal salutation in the Italian language that is used for both "hello" and "goodbye"." Ciao - Wikipedia

 

[ClementofA]

Timothy was the bishop of the church at Ephesus. Do you suppose that Timothy put Paul's letter away in a box somewhere and only took it out on special occasions, read it to himself and not to his congregation as Paul instructed him?

​

What does it matter.

Once again since you did not answer this what would the former pagan Christians, who had been taught about "hell," understand when Timothy read 2 Tim.2:24-25 to them? They did not have several Bibles on a laptop or tablet which they could whip out and look up all the verses which are usually thrown together to prove UR. .....In fact very few would even have a copy of this letter to refer to. Many of them could not even read. What would they understand when Timothy read "correcting those who are in opposition, if perhaps God may grant them repentance leading to the knowledge of the truth."

The letter was written to Timothy, not ex-pagans. So the more pertinent question is how Timothy would have understood Paul's remark in 2 Tim.2:24-25. The answer is in accord with Paul's teachings re universalism, e.g. Rom.5:18-19; 1 Cor.15:22-28; Phil.2:9-11; Eph.1:10; Col.1:16,20, 1 Tim.2:4-6; 4:9-11; etc.

So what would Timothy have taught these alleged ex-pagans? Exactly the same teaching of universalism that Paul taught.

This verse does not support UR but contradicts it. If salvation was a done deal why did the writer say "perhaps God may grant them repentance leading to the knowledge of the truth? Instead of "God will certainly grant them repentance leading to the knowledge of the truth?"

Each time the "Lord's bond-servant" does what 2 Tim.2:24-25 says, it is possible "God may grant them repentance". The verse puts no time limit on when one may repent or the number of opportunities Love Omnipotent will grant people to repent, either in this life or postmortem. Therefore it does not contradict UR (universalism) & is perfectly in harmony with it as taught elsewhere in the Scriptures. God has all eternity & unlimited love & opportunities for repentance & salvation for His created beings. It's mathematically impossible anyone could reject him forever.

Evidently the Christian persecutor called Saul, who became the apostle Paul, had been refusing to repent, for when Christ appeared to him Jesus said to him it is hard to keep kicking against the goads. And why do you persecute Me?

2Tim.2:24 The Lord’s bond-servant must not be quarrelsome, but be kind to all, able to teach, patient when wronged, 25 with gentleness correcting those who are in opposition,
if perhaps God may grant them repentance leading to the knowledge of the truth,

 

[Butch5]

The Greek word aion is used of finite periods of time. But it can mean "eternal" as it does in the phrase "the endless aion".

A word cannot have opposing meanings

 

[Butch5]

By context. An "eon" can be either finite or infinte, but not both at once.

The English word "lasting" can mean either a finite duration or ever-lasting, depending on the context.

"The word "ciao is an informal salutation in the Italian language that is used for both "hello" and "goodbye"." Ciao - Wikipedia

An eon is an undefined period of time. I agree with you on that point. That's the same for an age. The problem is that once you define aion as infinity, it can no longer mean finite. That's why ages or ages of ages is the best translation because it lets the reader define the meaning based on the context. However, we see that translators don't do that. They translate it as everlasting even for things that have ended.

Regarding Ciao, It's a salutation. You and the other person both know which it is. However, if we had a word xyz that meant yes and no. How could you communicate. Suppose I said, have you had dinner yet, and you answered xyz. You've communicated nothing to me as i still don't know if you've had dinner yet even thought you've answered.

 

[ClementofA]

An eon is an undefined period of time. I agree with you on that point. That's the same for an age. The problem is that once you define aion as infinity, it can no longer mean finite. That's why ages or ages of ages is the best translation because it lets the reader define the meaning based on the context. However, we see that translators don't do that. They translate it as everlasting even for things that have ended.

Regarding Ciao, It's a salutation. You and the other person both know which it is. However, if we had a word xyz that meant yes and no. How could you communicate. Suppose I said, have you had dinner yet, and you answered xyz. You've communicated nothing to me as i still don't know if you've had dinner yet even thought you've answered.

With ciao, which can mean "hello" or "goodbye", one knows the meaning by the context. It's the same with the English words "lasting" & "eon" & "eonian" & the Greek words "aion" & "aionion" & the Hebrew "olam". All these words speak of indefinite duration that is to be determined by the context. A lasting mortal life is finite & an endless eonian life is eternal. In at least one context Plato used aionios to mean eternal. Philo speak of an unlimited aion.

 

[Butch5]

With ciao, which can mean "hello" or "goodbye", one knows the meaning by the context. It's the same with the English words "lasting" & "eon" & "eonian" & the Greek words "aion" & "aionion" & the Hebrew "olam". All these words speak of indefinite duration that is to be determined by the context. A lasting mortal life is finite & an endless eonian life is eternal. In at least one context Plato used aionios to mean eternal.

Your statement makes my point. You said, "an endless eonian life is eternal". You used the word endless which qualifies the time. It's not "eonian" that makes it eternal, it's endless.

Aion means an age. By definition an age is undefined. I think we can agree on that. If an age is endless then it is eternal. If not it is finite. My point is that it must be qualified. In you statement you used the word endless which qualified the duration of the age, thus it is eternal. However, without the qualifier an age, an aion, doesn't mean eternal.

 

[ClementofA]

Your statement makes my point. You said, "an endless eonian life is eternal". You used the word endless which qualifies the time. It's not "eonian" that makes it eternal, it's endless.

Aion means an age. By definition an age is undefined. I think we can agree on that. If an age is endless then it is eternal. If not it is finite. My point is that it must be qualified. In you statement you used the word endless which qualified the duration of the age, thus it is eternal. However, without the qualifier an age, an aion, doesn't mean eternal.

In the phrase "the eonian God" how would you know if eonian is eternal or finite without more context?

 

[Butch5]

In the phrase "the eonian God" how would you know if eonian is eternal or finite without more context?

That's the point, you can't. People say it means eternal because they aleady believe that God is eternal. So basically, they use their theology to define the word. My point is that without context one cannot define an age.

 

[Der Alte]

The Greek word aion is used of finite periods of time. But it can mean "eternal" as it does in the phrase "the endless aion".

"Aion" means "eternal, endless" etc. when it supports UR doctrine but when it doesn't then it means a finite period of time. How convenient.

 

[Der Alte]

begin

What does it matter.
The letter was written to Timothy, not ex-pagans. So the more pertinent question is how Timothy would have understood Paul's remark in 2 Tim.2:24-25. The answer is in accord with Paul's teachings re universalism, e.g. Rom.5:18-19; 1 Cor.15:22-28; Phil.2:9-11; Eph.1:10; Col.1:16,20, 1 Tim.2:4-6; 4:9-11; etc.
So what would Timothy have taught these alleged ex-pagans? Exactly the same teaching of universalism that Paul taught....[repetitious twisting of scripture omitted]

end

What does it matter? You ignored the rest of Paul's letter to Timothy because it doesn't fit your agenda. What did Paul tell Timothy to do 2 Timothy 2:1-2? The same chapter your out-of-context proof text is from.
.....You said the "alleged ex-pagans." What were the inhabitants of Ephesus, and the rest of Asia [modern day Turkey] before Christians came, if not pagans? Since you can't even recognize that nothing you say means anything. Just pushing an agenda and ignoring anything which doesn't fit that agenda.
....[/quote]No, zero, none of your out-of-context proof texts teach UR. Note what you have to do vainly trying to support the UR agenda, take verses out-of-context verses from 6 different books and string them together. Did the citizens of Rome have the letters from Corinth, Galatia, Ephesus, Philippi, Colossae, Thessalonika etc? Dikd any of the churches have letters from other churches? As I said and provided evidence most of the people were illiterate and couldn't read any letters unless they were rich enough to afford them. So please tell me how they could string these verses together Rom.5:18-19; 1 Cor.15:22-28; Phil.2:9-11; Eph.1:10; Col.1:16,20, 1 Tim.2:4-6; 4:9-11 and come up with UR?

 

[Der Alte]

begin

Your statement makes my point. You said, "an endless eonian life is eternal". You used the word endless which qualifies the time. It's not "eonian" that makes it eternal, it's endless.
Aion means an age. By definition an age is undefined. I think we can agree on that. If an age is endless then it is eternal. If not it is finite. My point is that it must be qualified. In you statement you used the word endless which qualified the duration of the age, thus it is eternal. However, without the qualifier an age, an aion, doesn't mean eternal.

end

αἰών, ῶνος, ὁ
(Hom.+; gener. ‘an extended period of time’, in var. senses)

① a long period of time, without ref. to beginning or end,
ⓐ of time gone by, the past, earliest times, readily suggesting a venerable or awesome eld οἱ ἅγιοι ἀπʼ αἰῶνος προφῆται the holy prophets fr. time immemorial (cp. Hes., Theog. 609; Περὶ ὕψους 34, 4 τοὺς ἀπʼ αἰ. ῥήτορας; Cass. Dio 63, 20 τῶν ἀπὸ τοῦ αἰ. Ῥωμαίων; IMagnMai 180, 4; SIG index; Gen 6:4; Tob 4:12; Sir 14:17; 51:8; En 14:1; 99:14; Jos., Bell. 1, 12; Just., D. 11, 1) Lk 1:70; Ac 3:21; make known from of old Ac 15:18; πρὸ παντὸς τ. αἰ. before time began Jd 25a (for the combination with πᾶς cp. Sallust. 20 p. 36, 5 τὸν πάντα αἰῶνα=through all eternity); pl. πρὸ τῶν αἰ. 1 Cor 2:7 (cp. Ps 54:20 θεὸς ὁ ὑπάρχων πρὸ τῶν αἰ. [PGM 4, 3067 ἀπὸ τ. ἱερῶν αἰώνων]); ἐξ αἰ. since the beginning D 16:4 (Diod S 1, 6, 3; 3, 20, 2; 4, 83, 3; 5, 2, 3; Sext. Emp., Math. 9, 62; OGI 669, 61; Philo, Somn. 1, 19; Jos., Bell. 5, 442; Sir 1:4; SibOr Fgm. 1, 16 of God μόνος εἰς αἰῶνα κ. ἐξ αἰῶνος). W. neg. foll. ἐκ τοῦ αἰῶνος οὐκ ἠκούσθη never has it been heard J 9:32.
ⓑ of time to come which, if it has no end, is also known as eternity (so commonly in Gk. lit. Pla. et al.); εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα (since Isocr. 10, 62, also Diod S 1, 56, 1 εἰς τ. αἰ.=εἰς ἅπαντα τ. χρόνον; 4, 1, 4; SIG 814, 49 and OGI index VIII; POxy 41, 30=‘Long live the Caesars’; PGM 8, 33; 4, 1051 [εἰς αἰ.]; LXX; En 12:6; 102:3; PsSol 2:34, 37; ParJer 8:5; JosAs 15:3 εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα χρόνον 4:10 al. Jos., Ant. 7, 356 [εἰς αἰ.]) to eternity, eternally, in perpetuity: live J 6:51, 58; B 6:3; remain J 8:35ab; 12:34; 2 Cor 9:9 (Ps 111:9); 1 Pt 1:23 v.l., 25 (Is 40:8); 1J 2:17; 2J 2; be with someone J 14:16. Be priest Hb 5:6; 6:20; 7:17, 21, 24, 28 (each Ps 109:4). Darkness reserved Jd 13. W. neg.=never, not at all, never again (Ps 124:1; Ezk 27:36 al.) Mt 21:19; Mk 3:29; 11:14; 1 Cor 8:13. ἕως αἰῶνος (LXX) 1 Cl 10:4 (Gen 13:15); Hv 2, 3, 3; Hs 9, 24, 4. In Johannine usage the term is used formulaically without emphasis on eternity (Lackeit [s. 4 below] 32f): never again thirst J 4:14; never see death 8:51f; cp. 11:26; never be lost 10:28; never (= by no means) 13:8. εἰς τὸν αἰ. τοῦ αἰῶνος (Ps 44:18; 82:18 al.) Hb 1:8 (Ps 44:7). ἕως αἰῶνος (LXX; PsSol 18:11) Lk 1:55 v.l. (for εἰς τὸν αἰ.); εἰς ἡμέραν αἰῶνος 2 Pt 3:18.—The pl. is also used (Emped., Fgm. 129, 6 αἰῶνες=generations; Theocr. 16, 43 μακροὺς αἰῶνας=long periods of time; Philod. περὶ θεῶν 3 Fgm. 84; Sext. Emp., Phys. 1, 62 εἰς αἰῶνας διαμένει; SibOr 3, 767; LXX, En; TestAbr B 7 p. 112, 3 [Stone p. 72].—B-D-F §141, 1), esp. in doxologies: εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας (Ps 60:5; 76:8) Mt 6:13 v.l.; Lk 1:33 (cp. Wsd 3:8); Hb 13:8. εἰς πάντας τοὺς αἰ. (Tob 13:4; Da 3:52b; En 9:4; SibOr 3, 50) Jd 25b. εὐλογητὸς εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας to all eternity (cp. Ps 88:53) Ro 1:25; 9:5; 2 Cor 11:31. αὐτῷ ἡ δόξα εἰς τοὺς αἰ. Ro 11:36; ᾧ κτλ. 16:27 (v.l. αὐτῷ). τὸ κράτος εἰς τοὺς αἰ. 1 Pt 5:11; more fully εἰς τοὺς αἰ. τῶν αἰώνων (Ps 83:5; GrBar 17:4; PGM 4, 1038; 22b, 15) for evermore in doxologies Ro 16:27 v.l.; Gal 1:5; Phil 4:20; 1 Ti 1:17; 2 Ti 4:18; Hb 13:21; 1 Pt 4:11; 5:11 v.l.; Rv 1:6, 18; 5:13; 7:12; 11:15 al. 1 Cl 20:12; 32:4; 38:4; 43:6; εἰς πάσας τὰς γενεὰς τοῦ αἰῶνος τῶν αἰ. Eph 3:21 (cp. Tob 1:4; 13:12; En 103:4; 104:5). Of God ὁ ζῶν εἰς τοὺς αἰ. (cp. Tob 13:2; Sir 18:1; Da 6:27 Theod.) Rv 4:9f; 10:6; 15:7; formulaically=eternal 14:11; 19:3; 20:10; 22:5.—κατὰ πρόθεσιν τῶν αἰώνων according to the eternal purpose Eph 3:11. All-inclusive ἀπὸ αἰώνων καὶ εἰς τ. αἰῶνας from (past) eternity to (future) eternity B 18:2 (cp. Ps 40:14 and Ps.-Aristot., De Mundo 7, 401a, 16 ἐξ αἰῶνος ἀτέρμονος εἰς ἕτερον αἰῶνα; M. Ant. 9, 28, 1 ἐξ αἰῶνος εἰς αἰῶνα; SibOr Fgm. 1, 16 of God μόνος εἰς αἰῶνα κ. ἐξ αἰῶνος).
② a segment of time as a particular unit of history, age
ⓐ ὁ αἰὼν οὗτος (הָעוֹלָם הַזֶּה) the present age (nearing its end) (Orig., C. Cels. 1, 13, 15, in ref. to 1 Cor 3:18; s. Bousset, Rel. 243ff; Dalman, Worte 120ff; Schürer II 537f; NMessel, D. Einheitlichkeit d. jüd. Eschatol. 1915, 44–60) contrasted w. the age to come (Philo and Joseph. do not have the two aeons) Mt 12:32. A time of sin and misery Hv 1, 1, 8; Hs 3:1ff; ending of Mk in the Freer ms. 2; ἡ μέριμνα τοῦ αἰ. (v.l. + τούτου) the cares of the present age Mt 13:22; pl. cp. Mk 4:19. πλοῦτος earthly riches Hv 3, 6, 5. ματαιώματα vain, futile things Hm 9:4; Hs 5, 3, 6. πραγματεῖαι m 10, 1, 4. ἐπιθυμία m 11:8; Hs 6, 2, 3; 7:2; 8, 11, 3. πονηρία Hs 6, 1, 4. ἀπάται Hs 6, 3, 3 v.l. οἱ υἱοὶ τοῦ αἰ. τούτου the children of this age, the people of the world (opp. children of light, enlightened ones) Lk 16:8; 20:34.—The earthly kingdoms βασιλεῖαι τοῦ αἰ. τούτου IRo 6:1. συσχηματίζεσθαι τῷ αἰ. τούτῳ be conformed to this world Ro 12:2. As well as everything non-Christian, it includes the striving after worldly wisdom: συζητητὴς τοῦ αἰ. τούτου searcher after the wisdom of this world 1 Cor 1:20. σοφία τοῦ αἰ. τούτου 2:6. ἐν τῷ αἰ. τούτῳ 3:18 prob. belongs to what precedes=those who consider themselves wise in this age must become fools (in the estimation of this age). The ruler of this age is the devil: ὁ θεὸς τοῦ αἰ. τούτου 2 Cor 4:4 (θεός 5). ἄρχων τοῦ αἰ. τούτου IEph 17:1; 19:1; IMg 1:3; ITr 4:2; IRo 7:1; IPhld 6:2; his subordinate spirits are the ἄρχοντες τοῦ αἰ. τούτου 1 Cor 2:6, 8 (ἄρχων 1c).—Also ὁ νῦν αἰών (Did., Gen. 148, 21): πλούσιοι ἐν τῷ νῦν αἰ. 1 Ti 6:17; ἀγαπᾶν τὸν νῦν αἰ. 2 Ti 4:10; Pol 9:2. Cp. Tit 2:12. Or (Orig., C. Cels. 2, 42, 30) ὁ αἰ. ὁ ἐνεστώς the present age Gal 1:4 (cp. SIG 797, 9 [37 a.d.] αἰῶνος νῦν ἐνεστῶτος). The end of this period (cp. SibOr 3, 756 μέχρι τέρματος αἰῶνος) συντέλεια (τοῦ) αἰ. Mt 13:39f, 49; 24:3; 28:20 (cp. TestJob 4:6; TestBenj 11:3; JRobinson, Texts and Studies V introd. 86). συντέλεια τῶν αἰ. Hb 9:26; on GMary 463, 1 s. καιρός end.
ⓑ ὁ αἰὼν μέλλων (הָעוֹלָם הַבָּא) the age to come, the Messianic period (on the expr. cp. Demosth. 18, 199; Hippocr., Ep. 10, 6 ὁ μ. αἰ.=the future, all future time; Ael. Aristid. 46 p. 310 D.: ἡ τοῦ παρελθόντος χρόνου μνεία κ. ὁ τοῦ μέλλοντος αἰῶνος λόγος; Jos., Ant. 18, 287; Ar. 15, 3; Orig., C. Cels. 8, 24, 20; Did., Gen. 164, 2) in 2 Cl 6:3, cp. Hs 4:2ff, opposed to the αἰὼν οὗτος both in time and quality, cp. Mt 12:32; Eph 1:21; δυνάμεις μέλλοντος αἰ. Hb 6:5. Also αἰ. ἐκεῖνος: τοῦ αἰ. ἐκείνου τυχεῖν take part in the age to come Lk 20:35. ὁ αἰ. ὁ ἐρχόμενος Mk 10:30; Lk 18:30; Hs 4:2, 8. ὁ αἰ. ὁ ἐπερχόμενος Hv 4, 3, 5: pl. ἐν τοῖς αἰῶσιν τοῖς ἐπερχομένοις in the ages to come Eph 2:7. As a holy age ὁ ἅγιος αἰ. (opp. οὗτος ὁ κόσμος; cp. εἰς τὸν μείζονα αἰ. TestJob 47:3) B 10:11 and as a time of perfection αἰ. ἀλύπητος an age free from sorrow 2 Cl 19:4 (cp. αἰ. … τοῦ ἀπαραλλάκτου TestJob 33:5), while the present αἰών is an ‘aeon of pain’ (Slav. Enoch 65, 8).—The plurals 1 Cor 10:11 have been explained by some as referring to both ages, i.e. the end-point of the first and beginning of the second; this view urges that the earliest Christians believed that the two ages came together during their own lifetimes: we, upon whom the ends of the ages have come (JWeiss. A Greek would not refer to the beginning as τέλος. The Gordian knot has οὔτε τέλος οὔτε ἀρχή: Arrian, Anab. 2, 3, 7). But since τὰ τέλη can also mean ‘end’ in the singular (Ael. Aristid. 44, 17 K.=17 p. 406 D.: σώματος ἀρχαὶ κ. τέλη=‘beginning and end’; 39 p. 737 D.: τὰ τέλη … δράματος; Longus 1, 23, 1 ms. ἦρος τέλη; Vi. Thu. 2, 2 [=OxfT ΘΟΥΚΥΔΙΔΟΥ ΒΙΟΣ 2] τέλη τοῦ πολέμου; Aëtius, Eye Diseases p. 120, 25 Hirschb. after Galen: τὰ τέλη τ. λόγου=the close of the section; Philo, Virt. 182) and, on the other hand, the pl. αἰῶνες is often purely formal (s. above 1a and b, 2a at end) τὰ τέλη τῶν αἰ. can perh. be regarded as equal to τέλος αἰώνων (SibOr 8, 311)=the end of the age(s). Cp. TestLevi 14:1 ἐπὶ τὰ τέλη τῶν αἰώνων.—For the essential equivalence of sing. and pl. cp. Maximus Tyr. 14, 8b τὰ τῆς κολακείας τέλη beside τέλος τῆς σπουδῆς. Cp. also τέλος 5.
③ the world as a spatial concept, the world (αἰ. in sg. and pl. [B-D-F §141, 1]: Hippocr., Ep. 17, 34; Diod S 1, 1, 3 God rules ἅπαντα τὸν αἰῶνα; Ael. Aristid. 20, 13 K.=21 p. 434 D.: ἐκ τοῦ παντὸς αἰῶνος; Maximus Tyr. 11, 5e; IAndrosIsis, Cyrene 4 [103 a.d.] P. p. 129]; Ps 65:7; Ex 15:18 [cp. Philo, Plant. 47; 51]; Wsd 13:9; 14:6; 18:4; αἰῶνες οἱ κρείττονε Tat. 20:2) ApcPt 4:14. Created by God through the Son Hb 1:2; through God’s word 11:3. Hence God is βασιλεὺς τῶν αἰ. 1 Ti 1:17; Rv 15:3 (v.l. for ἐθνῶν); 1 Cl 61:2 (cp. PGM 12, 247 αἰώνων βασιλεῦ; Tob 13:7, 11, cp. AcPh 2 and 11 [Aa II/2, 2, 20 and 6, 9]); πατὴρ τῶν αἰ. 35:3 (cp. Just., A I, 41, 2; AcPh 144 [Aa II/2, 84, 9]); θεὸς τῶν αἰ. 55:6 (cp. Sir 36:17; ὁ θεὸς τοῦ αἰ.; En 1:4; PGM 4, 1163; TSchermann, Griech. Zauber-pap 1909, 23; AcJ 82 [Aa II/1, 191, 24f]). But many of these pass. may belong under 2.
④ the Aeon as a person, the Aeon (Rtzst., Erlösungsmyst. 268 index under Aion, Taufe 391 index; Epict. 2, 5, 13 οὐ γάρ εἰμι αἰών, ἀλλʼ ἄνθρωπος=I am not a being that lasts forever, but a human being [and therefore I know that whatever is must pass away]; Mesomedes 1, 17=Coll. Alex. p. 197, 17; Simplicius in Epict. p. 81, 15 οἱ αἰῶνες beside the μήτηρ τῆς ζωῆς and the δημιουργός; En 9:4 κύριος τ. κυρίων καὶ θεὸς τ. θεῶν κ. βασιλεὺς τ. αἰώνων; PGM 4, 520; 1169; 2198; 2314; 3168; 5, 468; AcPh 132 [Aa II/2, 63, 5]; Kephal. I p. 24, 6; 45, 7) ὁ αἰ. τοῦ κόσμου τούτου Eph 2:2. The secret hidden from the Aeons Col 1:26; Eph 3:9 (Rtzst., Erlösungsmyst. 235f); IEph 19:2 (Rtzst. 86, 3); cp. 8:1 (Rtzst. 236, 2). Various other meanings have been suggested for these passages.—CLackeit, Aion I, diss. Königsbg. 1916; EBurton, ICC Gal 1921, 426–32; HJunker, Iran. Quellen d. hellenist. Aionvorstellung: Vortr. d. Bibl. Warburg I 1923, 125ff; ENorden, D. Geburt des Kindes 1924; MZepf, D. Gott Αιων in d. hellenist. Theologie: ARW 25, 1927, 225–44; ANock, HTR 27, 1934, 78–99=Essays I, ’72, 377–96; RLöwe, Kosmos u. Aion ’35; EOwen, αἰών and αἰώνιος: JTS 37, ’36, 265–83; 390–404; EJenni, Das Wort ʿōlām im AT: ZAW 64, ’52, 197–248; 65, ’53, 1–35; KDeichgräber, RGG I3 193–95; HSasse, RAC I 193–204; MNilsson, Die Rel. in den gr. Zauberpapyri, K. humanist. Vetenskapssamfundets Lund II ’47/48, 81f; GJennings, A Survey of αιων and αιωνιος and their meaning in the NT, ’48; GStadtmüller, Aion: Saeculum 2, ’51, 315–20 (lit.); EDegani, ΑΙΩΝ da Omero ad Aristotele ’61 (s. Classen, Gnomon 34, ’62, 366–70; D.’s reply in RivFil 91, ’63, 104–10); MTreu, Griech. Ewigkeitswörter, Glotta 43, ’65, 1–24; JBarr, Biblical Words for Time2 ’69; OCullman, Christus u. die Zeit3 ’62.—B. 13. EDNT. DDD s.v. Aion. DELG. M-M. TW. Sv.[1]
[1] Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., Bauer, W., & Gingrich, F. W. (2000). A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature (3rd ed., pp. 32–33). Chicago: University of Chicago Press.​