Handmaid, you
must deal with Romans 2. Just as I must deal with Ephesians 2 "it's not of works" statement. Since I debate fairly, I will address your text -
please address mine.
Here is Ephesians 2:8-9 from the NASB:
For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; 9not as a result of works, so that (Y)no one may boast.
In verse 9, the writer is denying the salvific power of doing the works of
Law of Moses, and not that of the more general category of “good works”.
A point of method: It simply will not do to declare up front that the writer is talking about good works here. That begs the question, since the term “works” is not qualified by the term “good” or anything else that would rule out the possibility that the “works” of
the Law of Moses is the subject. The fair-minded reader needs to ask which of the following views makes more sense given both the local context and the broader context of the whole letter:
1. The salvific power of doing
good works is being denied;
2. The salvific power of doing the works of the
Law of Moses is being denied.
Explanation 2 is the one that makes sense in light of what the writer goes on to say in verse 11.
Proceeding to an examination of Ephesians 2:11 and following, the author uses the "therefore" to show us that he is now going to fill out the implications of his denial of salvation by “works”
Therefore remember that formerly you who are Gentiles by birth and called "uncircumcised" by those who call themselves "the circumcision" (that done in the body by the hands of men)— 12remember that at that time you were separate from Christ, excluded from citizenship in Israel and foreigners to the covenants of the promise without hope and without God in the world. 13But now in Christ Jesus you who once were far away have been brought near through the blood of Christ.
The writer is clearly now talking about the
Jew-Gentile divide, and how the actions of Jesus have brought Jew and Gentile together. Doing the works of Law of Moses, of course, is what demarcates Jew from Gentile in terms of covenant membership and shuts the Gentile out of citizenship in Israel. The writer continues:
1
4For he himself is our peace, who has made the two one and has destroyed the barrier, the dividing wall of hostility, 15by abolishing in his flesh the law with its commandments and regulations
How much more clear could the writer be? What has divided the Jew from the Gentile and been the barrier? Good works? Obviously not, both Jew and Gentile are on “the same side” of any good works barrier (first 20 or so verses of Romans 3). It is doing the works of
Law of Moses, of course, that is
the very thing that the Jew might otherwise boast in and which is now being declared to not be salvific.