No! Include and emphasize both...
"Now in truth, the human HAR1 demonstrates a difference with Chimps of 18 base pairs (and this is a gene so this makes it very different in form and function). YET...because the Chimps have one form of the gene and Humans have another they count this as a similarity when doing their tallying (to persuade you).
But in reality (not hypothesis driven) this 18 base pair difference is quite significant! (but shhh! you're not supposed to think about the actual data) "
Yup. Such emphasis.
a 15% difference in sequence of an organized section can have any number of of effects (many possibly unknown)...and I am not saying they all are bad (I am not in that camp). Also even 85% similarity does not indicate one is mutation of the other and scientists know this
Which scientists "know" that identical (or nearly so) "genes" can pop up in unrelated organisms?
Names please - and their work that demonstrates this. JUST the names and citations will do - no unnecessarily lengthy expositions on tangential minutiae.
so they conclude with an ancestor of the gaps argument that the mutation responsible for producing these two distinct outcomes occurred in a common ancestor (which the brainwashed automatically accept)
Actually, the 'brainwashed' appear to automatically accept that there is a massive, world-wide conspiracy involving possibly hundreds of thousands (millions?) of educated professionals and hundreds of thousands of scientific articles using gigabytes of data to relegate their favorite deity to the background.
And do you really think that 'the brainwashed' believe that "the mutation responsible for producing these two distinct outcomes occurred in a common ancestor"?
A claimed 3-decade study of science, and some still rely on strawmen.
but no one has been able to produce one example upon which to base this conclusion. Anyone can pick a proverbial rabbit out of the hat and choose a creature that does not have this variation from an earlier time and say this eventually BECAME these others but that is a blind leap of foundationaless faith in the preconceived conclusion.
Again, 30 years of claimed 'study' of science and that is what you come up with?
Science, Vol 255, Issue 5044, 589-592
Experimental phylogenetics: generation of a known phylogeny
DM Hillis, JJ Bull, ME White, MR Badgett, and IJ Molineux
Department of Zoology, University of Texas, Austin 78712.
Although methods of phylogenetic estimation are used routinely in comparative biology, direct tests of these methods are hampered by the lack of known phylogenies. Here a system based on serial propagation of bacteriophage T7 in the presence of a mutagen was used to create the first completely known phylogeny. Restriction-site maps of the terminal lineages were used to infer the evolutionary history of the experimental lines for comparison to the known history and actual ancestors. The five methods used to reconstruct branching pattern all predicted the correct topology but varied in their predictions of branch lengths; one method also predicts ancestral restriction maps and was found to be greater than 98 percent accurate.
Yeah... just 'foundationless faith' in... tested methods and applications.
To demonstrate such a mutation occurred one must show a before and after in the same line of organisms (the same problem exists for many alleged indels...no demonstrative cases if insertion or deletion just assumption to explain their distinct presence).
Must they do this?
You mean the entire field of comparative genomics is stocked with just a bunch of brainwashed conspiracists?