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No he doesn't. Some people interpret the bible to imply that homosexuality is a sin, but putting your interpetation on a par with God sounds pretty dodgy to me too.
I've yet to meet any Christians who claim to disagree with God.
You're not confused. Unfortunately whenever one's personal thoughts and feelings conflict with God's Word, no matter how plain the writing, it almost always becomes an 'interpretation' issue. It's no different than other sins. Human nature will do whatever it can to justify itself for whatever behavior we submit ourselves to. Like I said earlier, my job isn't to convince those whose hearts are already hardened to the truth, but to keep proclaiming it regardless of the response. I'll let the Holy Spirit take care of the rest.Maybe I am a little confused here. Do you 2 even find issue with EXACTLY what Paul wrote in 1 Corinthians? Not the translation, the straight greek has been presented, and you talk about interpretation. Is there a need to interpret "Thou shalt not kill"? If not, then why do you need to interpret that sodomites are sinners?
I note that you chose to include only some of my qualifiers. If you chose them all, (including any that are implicit but I left out to keep the typing reasonable) then you have got marriage.Your so called context doesnt hold water either. Because there is plenty of poeple that have beautiful loving out of wedlock relationships, but that is still sin.
Because you are relying on your interpretation of those translator's interpretation. Strongs is not part of scripture you know.As for your translation issue. Well here you go, heres the greek.
[SIZE=+1]Seems all pretty direct to me.[/SIZE]
Paul didn't use the word sodomites. If he had, that would be interesting because we would have to understand what he understood the sin of Sodom to be, and I rather suspect he Paul wouldn't have fallen into the trap of ignoring what Ezekiel said it was.Maybe I am a little confused here. Do you 2 even find issue with EXACTLY what Paul wrote in 1 Corinthians? Not the translation, the straight greek has been presented, and you talk about interpretation. Is there a need to interpret "Thou shalt not kill"? If not, then why do you need to interpret that sodomites are sinners?
It would be if he had, but he hasn't (at least not in the bible).GOD SAID that homosexuality is a sin, I believe homosexuality is a sin and THAT'S THAT.
I don't have a problem with what God has actually said, only with your interpretation of it.If you don't like what God says, talk to Him about it.
You can assert this all you like, but it simply isn't true.The plain meaning of Scripture is that homosexuality is a sin;
Wrong - see Ezekiel.that entire cities were wiped off the face of the earth for the sin of homosexuality (Gen. 19);
taken out of context. The context of a Law that also says eating shellfish, trimming your beard, and wearing polycotton is sinful. Taken out of the context of the injunction "don't do as the Egyptians do" (ie religous sexual acts). Removed from the context in the sense that the word translated 'abomination' refers to ritual sins, not sexual ones...that homosexuality is an abomination before God;
Very similar to above. Firstly, the word homosexual does not appear. The word he coined could mean any number of things but possibly harks back to Leviticus and almost certainly points to similar ritual and abusive sexual acts because he is addressing problems happening in those communities and that is the sort of thing that would be happening. He isn't talking about anything remotely similar to homosexual marriage because such didn't exist.and that no homosexual SHALL EVER inherit the kingdom of God (Romans 1:26-32, 1 Cor. 6:9-10).
Interpretation is about trying to understand words. If you call it 'word games' points to a lack of interest in understanding what the text actually is intended to say.Anything other "interpretation" is playing word games.
The plain meaning of Scripture is that homosexuality is a sin; that entire cities were wiped off the face of the earth for the sin of homosexuality (Gen. 19); that homosexuality is an abomination before God; and that no homosexual SHALL EVER inherit the kingdom of God (Romans 1:26-32, 1 Cor. 6:9-10). Anything other "interpretation" is playing word games.
I think almost all people, even homosexuals, know in their heart that their homosexuality is a grievous sin which is utterly detested by God.
I, too, used to be a liberal, but when I became a Christian I experienced the love of the Lord and with that a complete change of heart and with that, my eyes have been opened and I know what is right and wrong. God will never fail to lead us when we sincerely ask Him.
You seem have forgotten that everyone posting in this thread is a Christian.I, too, used to be a liberal, but when I became a Christian I experienced the love of the Lord and with that a complete change of heart and with that, my eyes have been opened and I know what is right and wrong. God will never fail to lead us when we sincerely ask Him.
I would restate that to say that everyone posting in this thread claims to be a Christian. It is highly unlikely that they all are.You seem have forgotten that everyone posting in this thread is a Christian.
Posted from another thread in regards to misinterpretation of Greek words in Corinthians:
The ambiguous term "arsenokoitai:"
The original Greek word "arsenokoitai" was apparently created by Paul when he wrote 1 Corinthians. The author of 1 Timothy used the same term. 3 It comes from the Greek words "arseno" which means "male," and "koitai" which means "beds." The latter was a common euphemism for a person who has sex. So, arsenokoitai is a "male-bedder."
The word is often translated in English versions of the Bible as "homosexual." That is, a men or women who are sexually attracted only to persons of the same sex. Some theologians are fairly certain that this is not the meaning that Paul wanted to convey, since the idea of sexual orientation only surfaced in the 19th century after human sexuality started to be scientifically studied.
Other versions of the Bible translate "arsenokoitai" by a phrase that describes sexual activity between males. The King James Version translates it as "them that defile themselves with mankind." Again, it is unlikely that the author(s) intended that behavior. The author(s) would have used the Greek word "paiderasste" -- the standard term at the time for males who had sex with other males.
Instead Paul used this made-up word which is not found in other Greek literature of the time. Other theologians are quite positive that Paul was condemning same-sex sexual behavior by men, and perhaps even by women.
I refer you to my previous post. Firstly, it doesn't mention homosexuality (the translations that do are not accurate). Secondly, and rather more importantly, you have taken it out of the context of "don't do as the egyptians do...". And finally, you are taking it from a set of laws that Christians don't keep.Let's see here... Leviticus 18:22
22. Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination. King James
Yet the bible wasn't written with English. Neither was it written out of context. If it appears simple it's because you are ignoring half the information. If someone ignores the complexities then they shouldn't be surprised if something looks simple; that doesn't mean it is.That all looks like pretty simple english to me.