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I'll just pick out a couple...
Irenaeus - Against Heresies Book 1 [120-202 AD] - Disciple of Polycarp, a disciple of John
Very properly, then, did he say, “In the beginning was the Word,” for He was in the Son; “and the Word was with God,” for He was the beginning; “and the Word was God, ” of course, for that which is begotten of God is God. “The same was in the beginning with God” …
You forgot the beginning sentence “Further, they teach that John, the disciple of the Lord, indicated the first Ogdoad, expressing themselves in these words:”
...your quote fits right here in the middle, then the last three sentences...
“Thus, then, does he [according to them] distinctly set forth the first Tetrad, when he speaks of the Father, and Charis, and Monogenes, and Aletheia. In this way, too, does John tell of the first Ogdoad, and that which is the mother of all the Æons. For he mentions the Father, and Charis, and Monogenes, and Aletheia, and Logos, and Zoe, and Anthropos, and Ecclesia. Such are the views of Ptolemæus.”
And you claim what by this, that they taught the Nicene Creed by this?
I was not arguing about the Nicene Creed. If I recall correctly The post I quoted said nothing about the Nicene Creed. If you wish to try to prove I quoted something out-of-context quote the passage in context and show how I was wrong.
Or this one here...
Irenaeus - Against Heresies - Book 4 [120-202 AD] -
And through the Word Himself who had been made visible and palpable, was the Father shown forth, … all saw the Father in the Son: for the Father is the invisible of the Son, but the Son the visible of the Father. And for this reason all spake with Christ when He was present [upon earth], and they named Him God.
...
He, therefore, who was known, was not a different being from Him who declared “No man knoweth the Father,” but one and the same, the Father making all things subject to Him; while He received testimony from all that He was very man, and that He was very God, from the Father, from the Spirit,
...
For the true God did confess the commandment of the law as the word of God, and called no one else God besides His own Father.
Can you explain to me, how this proves Irenaeus believed as it is taught in the Nicene Creed?
Once again I was not arguing the Nicene Creed.
Besides all this, the Father was in Christ. And according to the Granville Sharp's rule, Thomas was referring to two persons, when Thomas said, “My Lord and my God.”
apekrithē Thōmas kai eipen autō HO Kyrios mou kia ho Theos mou.
Answred Thomas and said to him the Lord of me and the God of me
And since many claim “Lord” means God, would you then say, Thomas is saying, “the God of me and the God of me”
Wrong on two counts Kyrios does NOT "mean" God but it primarily refers to God. There is a big difference. Second you need to brush up on the Granville Sharp rule [GSR] before you try to instruct someone else. Learn why John 20:28 is not a GSR construction.
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