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Why the Rev was written before 70 AD

shturt678s

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Why do you require from others that which you aren't willing to offer yourself?

I have asked you multiple times to prove from scripture that the Beast and man of Sin and Antichrist are the same individual, and you continue to refuse to do so... yet you have the audacity to REQUIRE everyone else to prove their views from scripture?

Puh-Leese!




Right back atcha bro.

Beasts of Rev.13 = / = Antichrist (IIThess.2:3), correct? Ie, we agree?

Humble pie Jack
 
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shturt678s

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No, the context dictates the pronoun I believe. I've seen it, he, and that, which is a wierd way to pronoun a vision. The surrounding contexts of Ireneous subject matter strongly infers that he is refeering to John here. Ireneous elsewhere refers to people in a similar passive manner. Take note of the following sentence in Ireneouses account. He says: but he (john) tells us the number of his name now, so that when he appears (future in Ireneouses understanding) that we will mark him. The context of this sentence supports that Ireneous is referring to john who was seen not so long ago. "who saw the vision" is a prepositional phrase describing who he is. If the next phrase would be telling when the vision was seen, it would more likely begin with "which" and not with 'for it, he or that.

This point aside, the other evidence is in support of early date. Rev 15:3 etc. It's been hashed many times before. People will project what is in their hearts; good and love or fear and hate.

I think the contextual evidence in the "7" endings of Revelation gives validity to the Amillennial synchronous view of Rev.

Thank you again,

Humble pie Jack
 
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xXChristPeripheralXx

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The evidence of the simultaneous persecution of the beast (nero) and the harlot (Judaism) is that the woman is riding on the beast for a while, and then the beast turns on her. That's how things went at about 65, 66 AD.

I dont know how you come to this understanding..

At all..

The reason the Beast turns on the harlot is because the RCC is going to be used to back the beast system, and then betrayed when they realize the AC wants its own religion, negating further need for the RCC..

Israel doesnt sit on "seven hills" so you not surprisingly have some or all of your data wrong..
 
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shturt678s

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The evidence of the simultaneous persecution of the beast (nero) and the harlot (Judaism) is that the woman is riding on the beast for a while, and then the beast turns on her. That's how things went at about 65, 66 AD.

So you think the beast in Rev.13 is Nero?

Humble pie Jack
 
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Notrash

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Can you offer proof in the form of objective data?

Lemme know..

Proof is a strong word to accomplish for naysayees.

Rev 15:3 says thst they ssng the song of moses. The song of Moses is Deut 32 which is the latter end of the mosaic covt. In that chapter it says that he would tske vengeance on his enemies for provoking hus sons and daughters (christians). This is after the new prophet (deut 18:15-19; Acts 3:22-24) delivers the new covt (deut 30:5-15; Rom 10:5-8). Thus t he whole subject matter of Rev is shown or "prooved" to refer to the events of the latter end of the mosaic covt and the full establishment and open revealing of the forever covt called new to the mosaic covt people.

You need to objectively open your heart and eyes to this possibility.

For another example consider the coorelation between joel 1 & 2 and Rev 9. Joel describes a locust plague in terms of a military invasion. Now in Rev 9 the military invasion (of Rome) is described as a locust plague.

Yes, Jerusalem sat on 7 hills or mounds. I think preterist archive has a map from the reformatiin era or before naming them.
 
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xXChristPeripheralXx

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Proof is a strong word to accomplish for naysayees.

Rev 15:3 says thst they ssng the song of moses. The song of Moses is Deut 32 which is the latter end of the mosaic covt. In that chapter it says that he would tske vengeance on his enemies for provoking hus sons and daughters (christians). This is after the new prophet (deut 18:15-19; Acts 3:22-24) delivers the new covt (deut 30:5-15; Rom 10:5-8). Thus t he whole subject matter of Rev is shown or "prooved" to refer to the events of the latter end of the mosaic covt and the full establishment and open revealing of the forever covt called new to the mosaic covt people.


Im sorry, I guess I was looking for proof.

For example I can prove temple mt has no Temple of God.

Can you bring that level of objectivity to your claims???

You guys like to cherrypick scripture into something with no substance or real validity..

Its subjective hearsay..
 
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shturt678s

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Right. I can't remember the gematriac reasons, but they were there, too.

We had Zahn's and Ruelhle's view decades ago, ie, "666" is the product of gematria. My point: Before this I for a short time bought into this, even myself, ie, seductive. I found it interesting that nowhere in Revelation are symbolical numbers formed by gematria which alerted me, ie, Revelation of course employs symbolical numbers (Rev.13:18 or so).

Just giving you a head's up,

Humble pie Jack
 
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shturt678s

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does that mean they were an inside "code" Christians had for Nero or for ____? It is obviously written with a sense of high security and lives at stake if they don't know.

Even the buy and sell is not to be taken literally, eg, Rev.13:17,

Humble pie Jack,

btw the burden of Revelation is not in Rev.13, but in Rev. chapters 8 & 9, ie, this moment.

Humble pie Jack's opinion
 
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Notrash

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Proof is offered. Study up and contest the proof or recieve its truth. Study hard and deep. Note how often deut 32 or Is 59 is referred to in the epistles to their first century audiences.


In my profile there is a link to a blog I have on wordpress offering 20 questions which Proove this element.

Its like an algebra solution can be prooved.
 
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xXChristPeripheralXx

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Proof is offeeed. Study up and defeat the proof or recieve its truth.

Its like an algebra solutiin can be prooved.

What kind of backwards logic is that.

You have to give me the "proof" before I can refute it..:thumbsup:

Its like an algebra solutiin can be prooved.

What does that even mean, you arent very comprehensible.. Is english not your first language??
 
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xXChristPeripheralXx

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I didn't think you'd want to know the truth.
handle-the-truth.gif



lulz
 
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Notrash

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Notrash, I did search 666 and gematria at fulfilledprophecy.blogspot.com and nothing comes up

He had asked for "proof" that the beheading of the saints and washing of their robes coorelated to Nero's and judaism's persecution. The proof is in Rev 15:3 applying to the first century and thus the time context of the book of revelation being the first century also.

As for 666, it works out to nero and 616 in latin which is the number in the vulgate I think. Isn't Nebukanezzee given that number also?

I believe that their is also a play of that number against 777 of the length of lamechs life. The song of lamech in gen 4? effected the removal of the curse on the land but through the second methusaleh/lamech and then noah. The second series of methusaleh/lamech indicated a future action relative to his song. Lamech "killed" the effect that the serpent and eves breach of the law temporarily had on man. He placed absolute faith in the promised future seed to the woman, thus canceling any enmity between he and the woman(s). He 'effected' the removal of the curse on the earth outside of the garden.

Nero is /wasþan antithesis to
 
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