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Why Substitutionary Atonement?

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Winepress777

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Are we required to understand an obscure theological doctrine before we can give the simple Bible message?

The sacrifice of Christ is a participation involving us. Not a "substitution", (wherever that idea came from ?!)

Rom_6:4 Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life.


Col_2:12 Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.

(Luk 9:23) And he said to them all, If any man will come after me, let him deny himself, and take up his cross daily, and follow me.

(Mat 20:22) But Jesus answered and said, Ye know not what ye ask. Are ye able to drink of the cup that I shall drink of, and to be baptized with the baptism that I am baptized with?

They say unto him, We are able.
 
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hedrick

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Are we required to understand an obscure theological doctrine before we can give the simple Bible message?

The sacrifice of Christ is a participation involving us. Not a "substitution", (wherever that idea came from ?!)

I agree that Paul thinks of it as participation. However look at passages such as Is 53:4. Christ suffered punishment that we deserved. That doesn't mean that God has to punish people in order to forgive, or the rest of penal substitution. But Christ did suffer things we deserve, so that we don't have to.

In 2 Cor 5:21, Christ is made sin even though he didn’t know sin himself. We’re the sinners. He dies to death and rises to new life for us, doing for us what we can’t do for ourselves. I think it’s reasonable to speak of someone doing for us what we can't do for ourselves as being our substitute. The first definition of "substitute" at dictionary.com is "a person or thing acting or serving in place of another." I agree that for Paul this works because of our participation in Christ.

I don’t mean to construct a doctrine out of this alone. It’s one of many words that’s often used to summarize what Scripture says about Christ’s death, and our doctrine should take that aspect of his action into account.
 
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Winepress777

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What I am finding, it is not obscure by any means, and it complicates the bible message.
I'm sorry, I meant it as points 1,2 & 6 below, and also as it's synonym 'ambiguous'. Hence the resultant complications you mentioned, as trying to shove a man made idea into people's minds;

ob·scure

1. Deficient in light; dark: the obscure depths of a cave.
2.
a.
So faintly perceptible as to lack clear delineation; indistinct: an obscure figure in the fog.
b. Indistinctly heard; faint.
c. Linguistics Having the reduced, neutral sound represented by schwa (ə).
3.
a.
Far from centers of human population: an obscure village.
b. Out of sight; hidden: an obscure retreat.
4. Not readily noticed or seen; inconspicuous: an obscure flaw.
5. Of undistinguished or humble station or reputation: an obscure poet; an obscure family.
6. Not clearly understood or expressed; ambiguous or vague: Some say that Blake's style is obscure and complex. See Synonyms at ambiguous.
 
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Winepress777

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I agree that Paul thinks of it as participation. However look at passages such as Is 53:4. Christ suffered punishment that we deserved. That doesn't mean that God has to punish people in order to forgive, or the rest of penal substitution. But Christ did suffer things we deserve, so that we don't have to.

In 2 Cor 5:21, Christ is made sin even though he didn’t know sin himself. We’re the sinners. He dies to death and rises to new life for us, doing for us what we can’t do for ourselves. I think it’s reasonable to speak of someone doing for us what we can't do for ourselves as being our substitute. The first definition of "substitute" at dictionary.com is "a person or thing acting or serving in place of another." I agree that for Paul this works because of our participation in Christ.

I don’t mean to construct a doctrine out of this alone. It’s one of many words that’s often used to summarize what Scripture says about Christ’s death, and our doctrine should take that aspect of his action into account.
I understand, thank you. I just have to say, I understand words used such as atonement, expiation, propitiation, and the greek words that form the meanings of the sacrificial work of Christ to a fair extent, I love these things. Not to mention the in depth recognition of the identification personally with the very blood and death of the sacrifices all through out O.T. Temple sacrifices showing the "participation" in the death.. . But mainly since there is no scriptures yet mentioned that say or indicate Christ as a "substitute", I've disciplined myself not to assume a non-scriptural replacement word with it's inherent meaning. The actual words used in Holy Writ mean so much more...
 
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Cappadocious

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But Christ did suffer things we deserve, so that we don't have to.
Christ didn't suffer so that we don't have to. Christ suffered so that we could enter into his suffering, enter into his death, resurrection, ascension, and second coming.

Christ didn't destroy death so that we wouldn't have to. He destroyed death so that, in him, we could.

Christ's body was broken and blood shed so that we could offer our own bodies broken and blood shed, through and with and in and by him to the Father and in the Holy Spirit.
 
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oi_antz

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I'm sorry, I meant it as points 1,2 & 6 below, and also as it's synonym 'ambiguous'. Hence the resultant complications you mentioned, as trying to shove a man made idea into people's minds;

ob·scure

1. Deficient in light; dark: the obscure depths of a cave.
2.
a.
So faintly perceptible as to lack clear delineation; indistinct: an obscure figure in the fog.
b. Indistinctly heard; faint.
c. Linguistics Having the reduced, neutral sound represented by schwa (ə).
3.
a.
Far from centers of human population: an obscure village.
b. Out of sight; hidden: an obscure retreat.
4. Not readily noticed or seen; inconspicuous: an obscure flaw.
5. Of undistinguished or humble station or reputation: an obscure poet; an obscure family.
6. Not clearly understood or expressed; ambiguous or vague: Some say that Blake's style is obscure and complex. See Synonyms at ambiguous.
Ok, then it should become more apparent as it is discussed. It is a term, a phrase, which describes a lot of different views on the gospel wherein the crucifixion serves some sort of key role in the plan of salvation, wherein it replaces the due justice owed to those who are saved. (I think, though admittedly I have only really been exposed to believing a Penal Substitutionary Doctrine). I will probe Hedrick a bit soon, and see the way he is looking at it. Please go ahead and define it to your own satisfaction, because that would help.
 
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oi_antz

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How does the atonement work? Scripture uses lots of metaphors and images, but there aren’t a lot of specific explanations. The most specific I can think of are:

* Rom 6
* Heb, particularly 9 - 10
* the Words of Institution

Rom 6 speaks of the double exchange. Christ takes our sin and annihilates it. Our old selves die with him. We become new people through his resurrection. This works because of our union with him.
Verse 12 seems to show that it only works because of our willingness to repent. The rest of your concusion here represents a more refined doctrine that is not explicitely stated by these words. This is why I read this whole chapter and do not see that Substitutionary Atonement is a necessary gospel in order to view every single statement St Paul makes, as true.
Heb and the Words of Institution speak of Jesus’ death as a covenant sacrifice, to establish the new covenant of Jer 31:31.
Which words? I see that all the scriptures speak of His life as being that sacrifice (Hebrews 10:9). You have said it is His death. This might have identified the kingpin of our differing views.
Note that Heb 9 specifically associates sacrifice with the first covenant (9:18-22), and it identifies blood as purification, not punishment.

Part of the issue is how we think OT sacrifices work. I assume that God does not require punishment. The prophets are clear that God does not require sacrifice, but rather repentance. So what is the role of sacrifice?

My assumption would be that sacrifice is basically a kind of sacramental way of sealing a serious commitment. That it isn’t primarily punishment is clear from the facts (1) that it is also used for establishing a covenant, where punishment doesn’t apply, and (2) that grain can be substituted for an animal. It’s hard to see how we can punish grain. Thus I think sin sacrifice basically is a way to dramatize and cement the repentance without which the sacrifice is useless.
Definitely, I am viewing it this way. I am seeing too, that the sacrifice doesn't actually help God to forgive. Rather, it is for the sinner to know that God is satisfied with their propitiation. Humans have instilled deeply in their culture, originating from survival instinct and scarcity, a sense of ownership which when applied to transgression (sin), results in an awareness of debt to God which cannot be repaid. So God has instituted for the human's sake, a procedure that they can follow with reverence and sincerity, that they will be able to attain their sense of having been forgiven. What I have a problem with though is people who take it too literally and suggest that without this action, God is not able to forgive, or that because of this action, God is obligated to forgive. That is not how forgiveness works, and to suggest forgiveness works that way can only be seen as deluded. I think this is why those people who are not Christian and object to PSA doctrines as being crazy injustice view God as a tyrannical god. They naturally know that forgiveness can't be bought. But they are in no position authoritatively to challenge the Christians that are pushing it on them. All they can do is reject it, and then the Christians curse them and wipe their shoes on their way out.

[/rant]

Anyhow, what St Paul seems to be appealing to here, is the Hebrew's culture of the time which had become so accustomed to this procedure, and had taken so seriously the requirements of attaining forgiveness of sins, to explain to them in terms that they can relate to (and St Paul being one of that same mindset and culture of the time), they can accept that sacrifices are no longer required, but that sincere repentance is owed. He goes on further to this in Hebrews 10 that after someone has realised the new reality (that is, that much more forgiveness is now required than before the crucifixion), should someone continue to sin knowingly, there is no such thing as a sacrifice that will purify them (v 26 & 27). This perspective puts a clearer view on the way that propitiation and atonement of sin should be viewed according to the gospel of Jesus Christ, and has provided more clarity to me as to why the Penal Substitutionary Atonement doctrine appears so heretical to me, and why it results in bad fruit.
Note that in 1st Cent Judaism, the death of a martyr has redemptive power for others. Examples are the binding of Isaac (which was treated by Judaism of the time almost as if the death had happened), Is 53, and 2 Macc. I am not convinced that this is because the martyr was punished for everyone else. Rather, his obedience, even to the death, unleashes a power that through solidarity with him, others can experience and be changed by.

Jesus pretty clearly foresaw the disaster that his people would experience if they didn’t repent of their violence. He wept for Jerusalem. I think his obedience and repentance was intended to inspire and through faith transform others. When seen from God’s point of view, it was also a covenant sacrifice, sealing his commitment to his people, and his willingness to take on the primary responsibility, and the cost, of fixing us. As Hebrews points out, something that broken can’t be fixed without blood. Not because God is blood-thirsty, but because things are so messed up that nothing but that level of obedience and self-sacrifice can fix it.
We can only speculate what caused Him to worry. We have such little information to form those opinions on, but I do agree with you, that which God knew before it happened, that blood (death) is one thing that can mitigate sin. But we also know that righteousness can too. But I don't see that Jesus' death was put on Him to somehow pay for sin, but only to extend the growing season (so to speak). It only pushed back the harvest date to allow more crop to be produced. When viewed in this context, the meanings "sacrifice" and "ransom for many" are quite different. Which might cause you to also think again about what is said in Isaiah 53 "the punishment that brought us peace was upon him" - and I have seen how this ties in with the OT sacrificial procedures, which I have just described, gives peace of mind to the sinner. Doesn't actually help God to forgive though. So it is clear that what happened to Jesus is the same that happened to Stephen. They blocked their ears, dragged him outside and killed him. That is what brought them peace. This was described in a very early post on this thread "the wrath of mankind was poured out on our Lord". Those words are rich with meaning, and draw a very realistic image.
In the posting you quote, I was speaking of 2 Cor 5:21. As I see it, this is speaking of the double exchange described more fully in Rom 6. In Rom 6, Jesus takes our sin, transcends it in death, and becomes the source of our righteousness, through resurrection. I believe 2 Cor is saying something similar with Jesus becoming sin, thus removing it from us, so that by union with him (“in him”) we might become God’s righteousness. I gave a more specific understanding of the wording above.
Please note that this can only happen if Romans 6:12 is applied effectively. However Apostle John did not provide so much hope for that, instead he has expressed an apocalyptic vision that eventually the world needs to be completely scrapped. This coincides too with what Jesus described in Matthew 25, wherein He seems to speak in context of a final day of judgement where this generation comes to an end. At some point I am going to need to mention that St Paul did not personally know Jesus, but rather was taught by the disciples who did, and The Holy Spirit. This means that his understanding is naturally formed on second-hand information. Further to this, he is has a rather ambiguous yet extremely precise communication style, which lends too easily IMO to misinterpretation. Yet when one really looks at what he is saying, it becomes apparent that lots of ideas seemingly based on his statements aren't really drawn from his statements. This is what happens over time as people base their beliefs on what they hear in church without asking questions, and then when they are questioned, they are forced to stand by the position they have already taken.

I need to go now, I will try to get to the other posts tomorrow. Thanks to yourself and the others who have contributed meaningful discussion, this is getting interesting. It has been interesting to make this response, as I found more clarity twice while doing this.
 
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oi_antz

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I agree that Paul thinks of it as participation. However look at passages such as Is 53:4. Christ suffered punishment that we deserved.
FYI: I think you are viewing this through the predefined lends of a Substitutionary Atonement doctrine. Whereas what I see in these words:

Surely he took up our pain and bore our suffering,

He came from heaven, was found to be in human form, in a sinful world, a state of existence which was well below any deserved consequence. He took it up in full knowledge, before being born. It was painful and He tolerated our suffering. All this is describing His life on earth, not just His death.

yet we considered him punished by God, stricken by him, and afflicted.

This stands out clearly to me as the way we have considered Him since the crucifixion. We might thank St Paul for considering Him punished by God, when he said "cursed is he who hangs on a tree". Well, because of this, it has become popular doctrine that God punished Jesus, cursed and afflicted Him. But this scripture only says that is what we thought, it doesn't say that is what actually happened. The next part does that:

But he was pierced for our transgressions, he was crushed for our iniquities;

This clearly shows that He took upon Himself the wrath of mankind's sinfulness instead of bringing forth Armageddon and judgement at that time (https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=john+3:17&version=NIV, https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew+26:53&version=NIV). It is for our ability to continue being sinners (our transgressions) He was pierced (https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew+20:28&version=NIV). He chose to be crushed for our iniquities instead of crushing us for our iniquities (https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew+21:38&version=NIV, https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John+15:22&version=NIV).

the punishment that brought us peace was on him,

Jesus was never prepared to compromise the truth. (https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew+12:39&version=NIV, https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew+21:13&version=NIV), yet those who hate the light cannot be at peace when the light is on them (https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=john+3:20&version=NIV, https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=isaiah+53:3&version=NIV). So He took that punishment in order to give us peace. (https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=mark+12:12&version=NIV).

and by his wounds we are healed.

We know that we can have confidence that He has accepted us, despite that we are not perfect, and that if we confess our sins, He is faithful to forgive us. Furthermore, we know that He is serious and this is a real hope, because we have seen the extent that He will go to, that the truth can set us free. (https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=matthew+21:43&version=NIV, https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=romans+6:14&version=NIV).
That doesn't mean that God has to punish people in order to forgive, or the rest of penal substitution. But Christ did suffer things we deserve, so that we don't have to.
Can you please explain this sentence for me?
In 2 Cor 5:21, Christ is made sin even though he didn’t know sin himself. We’re the sinners. He dies to death and rises to new life for us, doing for us what we can’t do for ourselves. I think it’s reasonable to speak of someone doing for us what we can't do for ourselves as being our substitute. The first definition of "substitute" at dictionary.com is "a person or thing acting or serving in place of another." I agree that for Paul this works because of our participation in Christ.
I don't look at it that way though. I look at it according to what the scriptures state: Jesus has been risen to life, to sit at the right hand of God while His enemies are made His footstool. (https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Hebrews+10:13&version=NIV). He has promised to do away with the present order of things (https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Revelation+21:4&version=NIV), to lead a new world consisting of those He has hand-chosen for their charitable nature: https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=matthew+25:34&version=NIV. I simply do not see a need for any Substitutionary Atonement doctrine to achieve this objective, I don't even understand what kind of logic would propose it could even be required or helpful, and because of this, I view the scriptures in absence of it to not even be saying such a thing.
I don’t mean to construct a doctrine out of this alone. It’s one of many words that’s often used to summarize what Scripture says about Christ’s death, and our doctrine should take that aspect of his action into account.
These words right here: "our doctrine should take that aspect of his action into account" - that is what I don't understand. Why should our doctrine take this "Substitution" aspect into account? In what way is Jesus really providing a substitution for us? What is He substituting, and why is it necessary? I am sure if we keep pressing we will get those answers, and I should tell you that I am grateful that you desire to press back. I feel that we might be making progress by laying this on the table, and I am glad I took a couple of days to respond.
 
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oi_antz

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Christ didn't suffer so that we don't have to. Christ suffered so that we could enter into his suffering, enter into his death, resurrection, ascension, and second coming.

Christ didn't destroy death so that we wouldn't have to. He destroyed death so that, in him, we could.

Christ's body was broken and blood shed so that we could offer our own bodies broken and blood shed, through and with and in and by him to the Father and in the Holy Spirit.
Can you please explain how you see this working, why you have arrived at these words?
 
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hedrick

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Verse 12 seems to show that it only works because of our willingness to repent. The rest of your concusion here represents a more refined doctrine that is not explicitely stated by these words. This is why I read this whole chapter and do not see that Substitutionary Atonement is a necessary gospel in order to view every single statement St Paul makes, as true.

I cited several passages, but I’m assuming you mean Rom 6:12. In general I agree that what God requires to forgive sin is repentance. But I wouldn’t cite this verse for that. The overall flow of that verse is now that you have been died and risen in Christ, therefore don’t sin.

When Jesus encountered people, at times he forgave them and they responded with repentance. Certainly God will forgive anyone who repents, but at times he takes the initiative.

But of course Rom 6 is about more than forgiveness. It’s about transformation. So even if we can repent on our own (and I’m Reformed enough to think that it’s never really on our own), we still can’t get past being sinners on our own. Rom 6:1-10 is about dying to sin and becoming new. That’s what the new covenant is about. It’s not just forgiveness but writing the Law in our hearts, and knowing God.

Which words? I see that all the scriptures speak of His life as being that sacrifice (Hebrews 10:9). You have said it is His death. This might have identified the kingpin of our differing views.

“This is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many.” (Mark 14:24). “This cup is the new covenant in my blood” (1 Cor 11:25) The usual understanding is that this is the new covenant of Jer 31:31. Cf 2 Cor 3:6, Heb 8:8. Heb 9:11-22 talks about the first vs second covenants, both of them established with a covenant sacrifice. 19 speaks of the sacrifice by Moses to initiate the first covenant.

Please note that this can only happen if Romans 6:12 is applied effectively. However Apostle John did not provide so much hope for that, instead he has expressed an apocalyptic vision that eventually the world needs to be completely scrapped.

I wouldn’t say scrapped. I’d say renewed.

St Paul did not personally know Jesus, but rather was taught by the disciples who did, and The Holy Spirit.

While I’d agree, Paul wouldn’t acknowledge that. He believed that Jesus came to him directly, and that his message is directly from Jesus, not dependent upon the disciples. He’s quote emphatic about that.
 
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oi_antz

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While I’d agree, Paul wouldn’t acknowledge that. He believed that Jesus came to him directly, and that his message is directly from Jesus, not dependent upon the disciples. He’s quote emphatic about that.
I am on the tablet again, but if you wouldn't mind, can you please provide the statements you remember to this effect? Thank you.
 
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hedrick

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I am on the tablet again, but if you wouldn't mind, can you please provide the statements you remember to this effect? Thank you.

Gal 1:11-12 For I want you to know, brothers and sisters,d that the gospel that was proclaimed by me is not of human origin; for I did not receive it from a human source, nor was I taught it, but I received it through a revelation of Jesus Christ.

Gal 1:15-17 But when God, who had set me apart before I was born and called me through his grace, was pleased to reveal his Son to me,e so that I might proclaim him among the Gentiles, I did not confer with any human being, nor did I go up to Jerusalem to those who were already apostles before me, but I went away at once into Arabia, and afterwards I returned to Damascus.
 
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Cappadocious

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Can you please explain how you see this working, why you have arrived at these words?

If we have died with Christ, we will also live with him.
If we endure [with him], we will also reign with him

For it is through many tribulations we must enter the kingdom of God.

Do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into his death?
We were buried therefore with him by baptism into death, so that as Christ was raised from the dead by the glory of the Father, we too might walk in newness of life.
For if we have been united with him in a death like his, we shall certainly be united with him in a resurrection like his.
We know that our old self was crucified with him so that the sinful body might be destroyed, and we might no longer be enslaved to sin.
For he who has died is freed from sin.
But if we have died with Christ, we believe that we shall also live with him.

Christ is the righteous man who walks not in the paths of the wicked. He, the very Image of God, brings his communion with God his Father into the reality of mankind by becoming incarnate and entering into the unrighteousness of this world, filling it up and judging it with his righteousness. And by entering into communion with him by meeting him in his God-filled human reality, we can share in his mighty acts and fulfill once more the ancient purpose for which we were created: To be high priests of creation, offering all things to God, starting with ourselves, in glorification and thanksgiving.
 
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Vollbracht

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Christ didn't suffer so that we don't have to. Christ suffered so that we could enter into his suffering, enter into his death, resurrection, ascension, and second coming.

Christ didn't destroy death so that we wouldn't have to. He destroyed death so that, in him, we could.

Christ's body was broken and blood shed so that we could offer our own bodies broken and blood shed, through and with and in and by him to the Father and in the Holy Spirit.

I think you would agree that when we suffer in Christ, we suffer not as ones condemned, fit for punishment.
 
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Cappadocious

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I think you would agree that when we suffer in Christ, we suffer not as ones condemned, fit for punishment.
Why not?

To take up one's cross, to fill up what is lacking in the suffering of Christ, and to be hated, persecuted and condemned by the order of this age. Is a servant greater than his master?

And it is not only us in Christ, but Christ in us.
 
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StephanieSomer

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I am still just getting started on this topic, can someone who has been over this already please summarise for me what is the real reason that Substitutionary Atonement is believed to be a necessary doctrine?

Thank you.

I haven't read the entire thread. So, if I post anything that has already been posted, I apologize.

The necessity of the doctrine is tied up in the absolute impossibility of atonement in any other way. If the doctrine was not held as necessary, it would indicate that atonement was possible in other ways. But it is not. Atonement requires the offering priest to be holy. None of us could ever qualify. It also requires the sacrifice itself to be perfect. Again, none of us could ever qualify. The only one who could satisfy the requirements would have to be one without sin, which precludes anyone except Christ from performing the Atonement.
 
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Vollbracht

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Why not?

To take up one's cross, to fill up what is lacking in the suffering of Christ, and to be hated, persecuted and condemned by the order of this age. Is a servant greater than his master?

And it is not only us in Christ, but Christ in us.

Because these would then not be true.

"He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God."

"There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit."
 
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Cappadocious

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Because these would then not be true.

"He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God."

"There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit."
The quote you speak of refers to condemnation by God and his righteousness.

But the faithful are not condemned by God, rather the order of this age condemns them, as it did Christ.

There is the judgment of the order of this age and then there is the judgment of God.
 
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