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So God changed His mind?
If you don't trust Him, there's no hope, no answer for you.That isn't in question here.
Okay, this is one that vexes me.
If the price of sin is either eternal death, or eternal suffering in the lake of fire (depending on which interpretation you go with), and Jesus paid the full price of sin, why then is Jesus not either:
1) eternally dead
2) waiting to go into the lake of fire for all eternity
If the price of sin is either eternal death, or eternal suffering in the lake of fire (as I said, depending on which interpretation you go with), and Jesus paid the FULL price of sin, he should then be in one of those two conditions.
The only reason I can think that he would not be in one of those conditions is if:
a) he did not pay the full price of sin but was let off part of the bill (cue track playing opening chords of O Fortuna)
b) The Father chooses to end the sentence of sin prematurely (which opens the gates to a potential universalism as regards salvation - ie: all end up being saved in the end)
It CANNOT be that Jesus gets a reduced sentence on account of being sinless, as that would mean he does not pay the FULL price of sin.
Thoughts?
That's a silly comparison.
Starvation is not the price of the meal.
Thank you - this reminded me of Jesus instructions to His disciples going out to others:And that, my friend, is EXACTLY the point. Eternal punishment is not the price of our reconciliation. It is the consequence. All the punishment in the world would not reconcile us to God. Jesus paid the price, so there are no longer consequences.
And that, my friend, is EXACTLY the point. Eternal punishment is not the price of our reconciliation. It is the consequence. All the punishment in the world would not reconcile us to God. Jesus paid the price, so there are no longer consequences.
No, promises were kept that were prophesied of in the Covenants. It was arranged in our time.
Okay, this is one that vexes me.
If the price of sin is either eternal death, or eternal suffering in the lake of fire (depending on which interpretation you go with), and Jesus paid the full price of sin, why then is Jesus not either:
1) eternally dead
2) waiting to go into the lake of fire for all eternity
If the price of sin is either eternal death, or eternal suffering in the lake of fire (as I said, depending on which interpretation you go with), and Jesus paid the FULL price of sin, he should then be in one of those two conditions.
The only reason I can think that he would not be in one of those conditions is if:
a) he did not pay the full price of sin but was let off part of the bill (cue track playing opening chords of O Fortuna)
b) The Father chooses to end the sentence of sin prematurely (which opens the gates to a potential universalism as regards salvation - ie: all end up being saved in the end)
It CANNOT be that Jesus gets a reduced sentence on account of being sinless, as that would mean he does not pay the FULL price of sin.
Thoughts?
I was raised LCMS and taught that also. I'm not at all sure that it is accurate today:That's another good reason to be a Lutheran, because we don't necessarily have this notion that Jesus descent into hell was to pay a legal penalty. Jesus descent into Hell was to destroy the power of hell.
*as prophesied:What do you consider to be the price Jesus paid?
I was raised LCMS and taught that also. I'm not at all sure that it is accurate today:
https://zondervanacademic.com/blog/did-jesus-really-descend-into-hell/
"But the phrase “he descended into hell” does not occur in the Bible."
"It is surprising to find that the phrase “he descended into hell” was not found in any of the early versions of the Creed"
I haven't 'studied' it per se...... it might be interesting to find out more, eh ? (not to derail this thread though)
Okay, this is one that vexes me.
If the price of sin is either eternal death, or eternal suffering in the lake of fire (depending on which interpretation you go with), and Jesus paid the full price of sin, why then is Jesus not either:
1) eternally dead
2) waiting to go into the lake of fire for all eternity
If the price of sin is either eternal death, or eternal suffering in the lake of fire (as I said, depending on which interpretation you go with), and Jesus paid the FULL price of sin, he should then be in one of those two conditions.
The only reason I can think that he would not be in one of those conditions is if:
a) he did not pay the full price of sin but was let off part of the bill (cue track playing opening chords of O Fortuna)
b) The Father chooses to end the sentence of sin prematurely (which opens the gates to a potential universalism as regards salvation - ie: all end up being saved in the end)
It CANNOT be that Jesus gets a reduced sentence on account of being sinless, as that would mean he does not pay the FULL price of sin.
Thoughts?
That sounds like saying "We say this, so we believe this" the way the rcc has for what ? 2000 years, who we protested (rightly so!) against ! .....It is implied in the Bible, however, even if not explicitly stated in that language (he went down and took captives (Eph 4:8), means that he was victorious over hell, like a Roman general parading captives). It's in our creed we use so therefore it is status confessionis the same as our other confessional documents. As Luther said, the old stained glass and artistic works of the Church are sufficient to teach on this doctrine.
It is also a theme that appears in some of the hymns we use.
That sounds like saying "We say this, so we believe this" the way the rcc has for what ? 2000 years, who we protested (rightly so!) against ! .....
Yet I'm not dogmatic about this.... Yahweh very slowly, very gently over decades, moved me to His Word, following Jesus as He leads to green pastures and still waters, Truth, in Jesus, without even debating or any fighting at all about such things ! (amazing grace - sheer grace ! ) .... (ie. there would be no benefit debating it on this forum, as far as I have ever known no one ever changes their mind or is saved on the internet (others recently said there have been some people helped, but that remains untested and unproven for me so far ) ) .......
That link I posted earlier was just found by a 0.01 second search ! .... I went back to it and read a little of the page after posting it...... may be some good sound reliable information there, but I didn't have time to vet it yet. (i.e. test everything).....
It is implied in the Bible, however, even if not explicitly stated in that language (he went down and took captives (Eph 4:8), means that he was victorious over hell, like a Roman general parading captives). It's in our creed we use so therefore it is status confessionis the same as our other confessional documents. As Luther said, the old stained glass and artistic works of the Church are sufficient to teach on this doctrine.
It is also a theme that appears in some of the hymns we use.
A perfect life. "A life for a life".What do you consider to be the price Jesus paid?