Why is Christ not dead / in Hell

[Inkfingers]

Okay, this is one that vexes me.

If the price of sin is either eternal death, or eternal suffering in the lake of fire (depending on which interpretation you go with), and Jesus paid the full price of sin, why then is Jesus not either:

1) eternally dead

2) waiting to go into the lake of fire for all eternity

If the price of sin is either eternal death, or eternal suffering in the lake of fire (as I said, depending on which interpretation you go with), and Jesus paid the FULL price of sin, he should then be in one of those two conditions.



The only reason I can think that he would not be in one of those conditions is if:

a) he did not pay the full price of sin but was let off part of the bill (cue track playing opening chords of O Fortuna)

b) The Father chooses to end the sentence of sin prematurely (which opens the gates to a potential universalism as regards salvation - ie: all end up being saved in the end)

It CANNOT be that Jesus gets a reduced sentence on account of being sinless, as that would mean he does not pay the FULL price of sin.

Thoughts?

 

[Landon Caeli]

.

 

[Inkfingers]

He did. He went straight to hell when He died. Then he left there... Because he's God.

You've just completely ignored what I am asking about (which is about the nature of the punishment for sin and how it has not been applied to Christ UNLESS in a universalist manner).

 

[Landon Caeli]

You've just completely ignored what I am asking about (which is about the nature of the punishment for sin and how it has not been applied to Christ UNLESS in a universalist manner).

Sorry. I thought I was in a different forum, speaking to an atheist. It's too early and I need coffee.

 

[Danielwright2311]

Okay, this is one that vexes me.

If the price of sin is either eternal death, or eternal suffering in the lake of fire (depending on which interpretation you go with), and Jesus paid the full price of sin, why then is Jesus not either:

1) eternally dead

2) waiting to go into the lake of fire for all eternity

If the price of sin is either eternal death, or eternal suffering in the lake of fire (as I said, depending on which interpretation you go with), and Jesus paid the FULL price of sin, he should then be in one of those two conditions.



The only reason I can think that he would not be in one of those conditions is if:

a) he did not pay the full price of sin but was let off part of the bill (cue track playing opening chords of O Fortuna)

b) The Father chooses to end the sentence of sin prematurely (which opens the gates to a potential universalism as regards salvation - ie: all end up being saved in the end)

It CANNOT be that Jesus gets a reduced sentence on account of being sinless, as that would mean he does not pay the FULL price of sin.

Thoughts?

Death comes to every one, because of sin we die.

But after death we will be judged and Jesus can not be judged as he was perfect with no sin.

Also it was Gods plan to sacrifice his son Jesus to die for mans sins.

So Jesus did die and he was rose back to life after three days.

This was Gods plan.

Now mans sins are judged and Jesus never sinned so he took on our sins to be forgiven.

You should be concerned about you and your sins and repent them to Jesus.

 

[Inkfingers]

Death comes to every one, because of sin we die.

But after death we will be judged and Jesus can not be judged as he was perfect with no sin.

Also it was Gods plan to sacrifice his son Jesus to die for mans sins.

So Jesus did die and he was rose back to life after three days.

This was Gods plan.

Now mans sins are judged and Jesus never sinned so he took on our sins to be forgiven.

You should be concerned about you and your sins and repent them to Jesus.

But the price of sin isn't just dying.

It's either eternal death or eternal suffering (depending on which view you subscribe too).

So how can Jesus be said to have paid the full price of sin if he's not either eternally dead or awaiting being thrown into the lake of fire?

 

[Danielwright2311]

But the price of sin isn't just dying.

It's either eternal death or eternal suffering (depending on which view you subscribe too).

So how can Jesus be said to have paid the full price of sin if he's not either eternally dead or awaiting being thrown into the lake of fire?

Yes, but only for man.

the price of death is for man only, and for the devil and his followers.

Not for Jesus or God, there exempt as there perfect.

 

[Inkfingers]

Yes, but only for man.

the price of death is for man only, and for the devil and his followers.

Not for Jesus or God, there exempt as there perfect.

If Jesus is not either eternally dead or awaiting eternal toasting in the lake of fire, he did NOT pay the full price for sin (as the aforemention are the full price for sin).

 

[2PhiloVoid]

Okay, this is one that vexes me.

If the price of sin is either eternal death, or eternal suffering in the lake of fire (depending on which interpretation you go with), and Jesus paid the full price of sin, why then is Jesus not either:

1) eternally dead

2) waiting to go into the lake of fire for all eternity

If the price of sin is either eternal death, or eternal suffering in the lake of fire (as I said, depending on which interpretation you go with), and Jesus paid the FULL price of sin, he should then be in one of those two conditions.



The only reason I can think that he would not be in one of those conditions is if:

a) he did not pay the full price of sin but was let off part of the bill (cue track playing opening chords of O Fortuna)

b) The Father chooses to end the sentence of sin prematurely (which opens the gates to a potential universalism as regards salvation - ie: all end up being saved in the end)

It CANNOT be that Jesus gets a reduced sentence on account of being sinless, as that would mean he does not pay the FULL price of sin.

Thoughts?

In my theological understanding, Jesus paid the FULL price of sin for us ... and yet was resurrected because:

1) Jesus was sinless and thus the supreme death penalty doesn't apply since, in all of God's justice, it can ONLY apply to those persons who are sinful and fall short of God's full glory. Jesus has never fallen short of God's glory; therefore, Jesus need not remain dead forevermore.

2) Jesus is also God incarnate; SO, it follows that as an eternal being in the full scheme of reality as it is, Jesus' singular, bodily, and complete death on the cross alone (as God incarnate) pays for ALL of the sins of all of us 'lesser' beings whom He has created.

Jesus only had to experience a complete physical death, not an eternal silencing and snuffing out of body, soul and spirit.

2PhiloVoid

 

[Danielwright2311]

If Jesus is not either eternally dead or awaiting eternal toasting in the lake of fire, he did NOT pay the full price for sin (as the aforemention are the full price for sin).

Yes he did, its not your rules of salvation, its Gods.

God excepted Jesus death as a atonement for our sins, he said he did, its Gods choice to decide what he chooses for payment of sin.

It was Gods plan.

How can God have a plan, then refuse the very plan he created? He cant.

 

[amariselle]

Okay, this is one that vexes me.

If the price of sin is either eternal death, or eternal suffering in the lake of fire (depending on which interpretation you go with), and Jesus paid the full price of sin, why then is Jesus not either:

1) eternally dead

2) waiting to go into the lake of fire for all eternity

If the price of sin is either eternal death, or eternal suffering in the lake of fire (as I said, depending on which interpretation you go with), and Jesus paid the FULL price of sin, he should then be in one of those two conditions.



The only reason I can think that he would not be in one of those conditions is if:

a) he did not pay the full price of sin but was let off part of the bill (cue track playing opening chords of O Fortuna)

b) The Father chooses to end the sentence of sin prematurely (which opens the gates to a potential universalism as regards salvation - ie: all end up being saved in the end)

It CANNOT be that Jesus gets a reduced sentence on account of being sinless, as that would mean he does not pay the FULL price of sin.

Thoughts?

Christ is God, not just man. God cannot die or cease to exist or cease be God. Jesus’ physical body died and was raised again, His divinity did not “die” or end. And Jesus was entirely without sin, therefore He could never be deserving of or subject to “the second death.” God has prepared “the lake of fire” for the devil and his angels, God Himself would obviously never go there.

John 19:
28 After this, Jesus knowing that all things were now accomplished, that the scripture might be fulfilled, saith, I thirst.
29 Now there was set a vessel full of vinegar: and they filled a spunge with vinegar, and put it upon hyssop, and put it to his mouth.
30 When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost.

Romans 8:
3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:

Hebrews 10:
10 By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.
11 And every priest standeth daily ministering and offering oftentimes the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins:
12 But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;
13 From henceforth expecting till his enemies be made his footstool.
14 For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified.

 

[Inkfingers]

Jesus paid the FULL price of sin for us ... and yet was resurrected...

Then he did not pay the full price of sin.

The full price of sin is either:

1) dead dead, no save, no reboot, no second chances, format c:

2) eternity in the eternal fire

Three days in Hell/Sheol is NOT the full price of sin.

Jesus has never fallen short of God's glory; therefore, Jesus need not be dead forevermore.

That's besides the point though (see above).

as an eternal being in the full scheme of reality as it is, Jesus' singular, bodily, and complete death on the cross alone (as God incarnate) pays for ALL of the sins of all of us 'lesser' beings whom He has created.

Jesus only had to experience a complete physical death, not an eternal silencing and snuffing out of body, soul and spirit.

Again, see above.

 

[paul1149]

If the price of sin is either eternal death, or eternal suffering in the lake of fire (depending on which interpretation you go with), and Jesus paid the full price of sin, why then is Jesus not either:

1) eternally dead

2) waiting to go into the lake of fire for all eternity

The consequence of sin is eternal separation from God. The price of our redemption was a perfect life given on our behalf, as the Bible prescribes, "a life for a life". Jesus was required to give His perfect life in order to pay our ransom. The price being paid, He was not required to suffer alienation from God for all eternity. For that reason, "death could not hold Him".

 

[Inkfingers]

The consequence of sin is eternal separation from God. The price of our redemption was a perfect life given on our behalf, as the Bible prescribes, "a life for a life". Jesus was required to give His perfect life in order to pay our ransom. The price being paid, He was not required to suffer alienation from God for all eternity. For that reason, "death could not hold Him".

Then he did not pay the price of Sin and people should not teach that he did...

 

[2PhiloVoid]

Then he did not pay the full price of sin.

The full price of sin is either:

1) dead dead, no save, no reboot, no second chances, format c:

2) eternity in the eternal fire

Three days in Hell/Sheol is NOT the full price of sin.

Who says, and where? Because that faulty theology you're pushing (even if just for us to contemplate on a hypothetical level) needs to take a fall ...

 

[συνείδησις]

If the price of sin is either eternal death, or eternal suffering in the lake of fire (depending on which interpretation you go with), and Jesus paid the full price of sin, why then is Jesus not either:

Christ was judged according to the law of Moses. Its penalty for certain sins was physical death. I don't think the words eternal death are mentioned therein.

 

[paul1149]

Then he did not pay the price of Sin and people should not teach that he did...

You're not understanding. Jesus certainly did pay the price of our sin. For us, the consequence of our father's sin is eternal separation from God, because we cannot pay the price of redemption. Jesus can, however, so He paid that price - a life for a life. There was no justification for Him to pay any more.

 

[Landon Caeli]

It CANNOT be that Jesus gets a reduced sentence on account of being sinless, as that would mean he does not pay the FULL price of sin.

Thoughts?

We're like pennies, and Jesus was like a million dollar bill.

 

[Inkfingers]

Christ was judged according to the law of Moses. Its penalty for certain sins was physical death. I don't think the words eternal death are mentioned therein.

Eternal death or eternal suffering (depending on which interpretation you hold to) is the FULL price of sin that WE would have to pay.

If Christ instead paid the FULL price of sin, he should either be permanently dead or waiting for the lake of fire - otherwise he has not paid the full price of sin which would otherwise have to pay ourselves.

 

[Landon Caeli]

Eternal death or eternal suffering (depending on which interpretation you hold to) is the FULL price of sin that WE would have to pay.

If Christ instead paid the FULL price of sin, he should either be permanently dead or waiting for the lake of fire - otherwise he has not paid the full price of sin which would otherwise have to pay ourselves.

Jesus is so much more than us, a minute of his time is worth 500,000 eternitys for a normal person.