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what Bible translation are you using here?
"Full number" is an extremely erroneous translation of the word "fulness"
The term "Fullness of the Gentiles" is oft equated with the notion of quantity, amount, or number count of Gentile believers, but does scripture support such a notion?
By comparing scripture with scripture we clearly see that "fullness" does not equate with "full number", but rather the fullness of Gods grace:
John 1:16
And of his fullness have all we received, and grace for grace.
Romans 11:12 Now if the fall of them be the riches of the world, and the diminishing of them the riches of the Gentiles; how much more their fulness?
(This is especially instructive for us in that "fullness" is considered here to the the opposite of "fall", and in no way can be construed as a numeric value.)
Romans 15:29 And I am sure that, when I come unto you, I shall come in the fullness of the blessing of the gospel of Christ.
Ephesians 1:23 Which is his body, the fullness of him that filleth all in all.
The list goes on........
The notion of fullness in the NT carries the idea of "totality of Gods blessings and grace", and not a certain number of people.
Gentile believers are not waiting to become "full partakers" of the Grace of God, rather The Gentiles are already FULL PARTAKERS of the grace of God.
The "Fulness of the gentiles" came in 2000 years ago.
I don't see any support in either of these verses for the claim:
"One of the prophecies about Jesus return refers to a mass turning of the Jews to Christ."
Which prophesy makes this claim?
Are you a Praetorist? The NIV translation implies " until the full number" has come in. The NkJV says fullness of the gentiles but could also refer to the times of the gentiles in which they dominate the Jews in which case some say it came to an end in 1967.
You have a non standard interpretation.
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