His_disciple3
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- Nov 22, 2010
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All DOES mean "all" and world DOES mean "world".
But the fact is, "all" has more than one definition, and "world" has around 10 definitions.
Are you ignorant of this fact? It seems the burden of proof is on you to prove that "all" and "world" only has one definition, when the Greek concordance proves the opposite. It seems the person who denies these facts is either ignorant or purposely ignoring it.
Who is more deceptive and guilty of twisting the meaning of words? The person who insists that these words have less definitions than they actually have, or the person who acknowledges the truth that they have several definitions according to the Greek dictionary?
see post #332, the whole world in 1 john would lump them all together, man there I go again assuming the "ALL" Means "ALL", i just realized something, it is hard to explain God to an atheist, for you have to reference scriptures in your discussion, and they take no stock in scriptures, How can I ever explain grace by faith when calvinist take no stock in faith. or the God given ability to use that faith given to every man. man there I go again assumming "every" means "every" when will I ever learn. I think we are suppose to use scriptures to prove our doctrine not use our doctrine to prove scriptures. or should I say line our doctrines up with scriptures not lines scriptures up to our doctrine, how do we know that gentiles were in the elect, I mean after all didn't Jesus just come for the House of Israel, then when God blinded them so that we the wild olive branch could be grafted in, You think that God used His foreknowledge to know that some gentiles would be allowed in, no way that would put another black eye with a round house right on the calvinist, wait I can't go there for that would mean that when the bible said that He came for the house of Israel, then gentiles were in the elect before time begin, then that would mean that Jesus came for the house of Israel wouldn't mean what that said either, I just don't understand anymore is scripture right or John calvin, I guess that is the million dollar question now ain't! then wait lets throw joseph smith in there also I mean after all John calvin just had His interpretation of scripture and Joseph smith had the golden plates shown by the angel. doesn't the bible say it is not for a private interpretation, oh what is the use that can't mean what is says either!
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