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these I will bring to my holy mountainHouse of prayer for all people.
Here is the post I answered.these I will bring to my holy mountain
and give them joy in my house of prayer.
Their burnt offerings and sacrifices
will be accepted on my altar
= the temple in Jerusalem
I would like to know when God ever demanded Gentiles to keep any of the ritual commands He required of the nation of Israel.
But your foreigner means somebody who joined the nation of Israel, being born elsewhere. Its not an instruction for Gentiles as such. Which was the point of the post you answered.Here is the post I answered.
A foreigner is a foreigner.
Among these, what would you say is the strongest verse in support of your argument?I'm glad you asked such an easy question to answer.
Exodus 12: 48 And when a stranger shall sojourn with thee, and will keep the passover to the Lord, let all his males be circumcised, and then let him come near and keep it; and he shall be as one that is born in the land: for no uncircumcised person shall eat thereof.
49 One law shall be to him that is homeborn, and unto the stranger that sojourneth among you.
Exodus 20: 10 But the seventh day is the sabbath of the Lord thy God: in it thou shalt not do any work, thou, nor thy son, nor thy daughter, thy manservant, nor thy maidservant, nor thy cattle, nor thy stranger that is within thy gates:
Exodus 23: 12 Six days thou shalt do thy work, and on the seventh day thou shalt rest: that thine ox and thine ass may rest, and the son of thy handmaid, and the stranger, may be refreshed.
Leviticus 13: 29 ¶And this shall be a statute for ever unto you: that in the seventh month, on the tenth day of the month, ye shall afflict your souls, and do no work at all, whether it be one of your own country, or a stranger that sojourneth among you:
Leviticus 17: 8 ¶And thou shalt say unto them, Whatsoever man there be of the house of Israel, or of the strangers which sojourn among you, that offereth a burnt offering or sacrifice,
9 And bringeth it not unto the door of the tabernacle of the congregation, to offer it unto the Lord; even that man shall be cut off from among his people.
10 ¶And whatsoever man there be of the house of Israel, or of the strangers that sojourn among you, that eateth any manner of blood; I will even set my face against that soul that eateth blood, and will cut him off from among his people.
Leviticus 17: 12 Therefore I said unto the children of Israel, No soul of you shall eat blood, neither shall any stranger that sojourneth among you eat blood.
13 And whatsoever man there be of the children of Israel, or of the strangers that sojourn among you, which hunteth and catcheth any beast or fowl that may be eaten; he shall even pour out the blood thereof, and cover it with dust.
Leviticus 18: 26 Ye shall therefore keep my statutes and my judgments, and shall not commit any of these abominations; neither any of your own nation, nor any stranger that sojourneth among you:
27 (For all these abominations have the men of the land done, which were before you, and the land is defiled
How many more verses will it take to convince you you're mistaken? There are more if you'd like to see them.
I treat the scriptures speaking to God setting aside the Jewish nation the same way I treat the scripture telling us God commanded the Gentiles/strangers to obey His laws if they wanted to serve Him. He has always loved all of us.Among these, what would you say is the strongest verse in support of your argument?
Also, generally, how do you treat the verses in the Bible indicating that Israel was set apart for God? Exactly how can Israel be set apart for God when the same standards that are applicable to Israel were applicable to the entire world, in your view?
I don't see why that would make God a hypocrite. I make my daughter clean the kitchen, my eldest son mow the lawn, and my youngest son take out the trash.I treat the scriptures speaking to God setting aside the Jewish nation the same way I treat the scripture telling us God commanded the Gentiles/strangers to obey His laws if they wanted to serve Him. He has always loved all of us.
Is God a hypocrite? Is He going to require something from one group of people than He does from another group of people? I believe Nebuchadnezzar will be in heaven,
Are you as just as God? You see no problem with God treating large groups of people differently Why? In fact there are only two different groups of people on earth. Jews and non Jews according to scripture. Do you think the non Jews were discriminated against by God during OT times? If not, why not? And you have no problem with God giving you preferential treatment?I don't see why that would make God a hypocrite. I make my daughter clean the kitchen, my eldest son mow the lawn, and my youngest son take out the trash.
I think you already know the answer to that question.Are you as just as God?
I think that it is farily clear from Sacred Scripture that God does not treat all groups of people the same. For example, from Romans:You see no problem with God treating large groups of people differently Why? In fact there are only two different groups of people on earth. Jews and non Jews according to scripture. Do you think the non Jews were discriminated against by God during OT times? If not, why not?
I have no problem with anything that God decides to do.And you have no problem with God giving you preferential treatment?
Why did God raise Pharaoh up? So He could demonstrate His love for the Israelites via someone whom He knew would reject Him. Is that love or is that God being a hypocrite. God loves all of us whether or not we accept Him and His son. Jesus demonstrated this conclusively on the cross.I think you already know the answer to that question.
I think that it is farily clear from Sacred Scripture that God does not treat all groups of people the same. For example, from Romans:
They are Israelites, and to them belong the adoption, the glory, the covenants, the giving of the law, the worship, and the promises. To them belong the patriarchs, and from their race, according to the flesh, is the Christ, who is God over all, blessed forever. Amen. But it is not as though the word of God has failed. For not all who are descended from Israel belong to Israel, and not all are children of Abraham because they are his offspring, but “Through Isaac shall your offspring be named.” This means that it is not the children of the flesh who are the children of God, but the children of the promise are counted as offspring. For this is what the promise said: “About this time next year I will return, and Sarah shall have a son.” And not only so, but also when Rebekah had conceived children by one man, our forefather Isaac, though they were not yet born and had done nothing either good or bad—in order that God's purpose of election might continue, not because of works but because of him who calls— she was told, “The older will serve the younger.” As it is written, “Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated.”What shall we say then? Is there injustice on God's part? By no means! For he says to Moses, “I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion.” So then it depends not on human will or exertion, but on God, who has mercy. For the Scripture says to Pharaoh, “For this very purpose I have raised you up, that I might show my power in you, and that my name might be proclaimed in all the earth.” So then he has mercy on whomever he wills, and he hardens whomever he wills.I think you can find other verses in Sacred Scripture that indicate the same thing yourself.
I have no problem with anything that God decides to do.
I'm not sure why you keep asking me about God being a hypocrite. Of course I do not believe that God is a hypocrite. I would appreciate it if you could stop asking me questions like that.Why did God raise Pharaoh up? So He could demonstrate His love for the Israelites via someone whom He knew would reject Him. Is that love or is that God being a hypocrite.
I agree that God loves all people and desires all men to be saved. But it does not therefore follow logically that he treats all men the same. For example, in Matthew, the master does not give each servant the same number of talents. He gives each of them a different number of talents.God
loves all of us whether or not we accept Him and His son. Jesus demonstrated this conclusively on the cross.
I do not think there is any distinction among Jews and Gentiles insofar as it comes to the way of salvation. After the death and resurrection of our Lord, salvation for everyone is from the grace that was merited for us by the death of our Lord Jesus on the cross.However Paul says this about Jews and Greeks and Jews and Gentiles.
Romans 1: 16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.
Romans 10: 12 For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.
1Corinthians 1: 22 For the Jews require a sign, and the Greeks seek after wisdom:
23 But we preach Christ crucified, unto the Jews a stumblingblock, and unto the Greeks foolishness;
24 But unto them which are called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God, and the wisdom of God.
25 Because the foolishness of God is wiser than men; and the weakness of God is stronger than men.
Galatians 1: 28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
29 And if ye be Christ’s, then are ye Abraham’s seed, and heirs according to the promise.
Colossians 3: 9 Lie not one to another, seeing that ye have put off the old man with his deeds;
10 And have put on the new man, which is renewed in knowledge after the image of him that created him:
11 Where there is neither Greek nor Jew, circumcision nor uncircumcision, Barbarian, Scythian, bond nor free: but Christ is all, and in all.
12 Put on therefore, as the elect of God, holy and beloved, bowels of mercies, kindness, humbleness of mind, meekness, longsuffering;
So just where is the difference between Jew and Gentile according to Paul?
Ephesians 2: 10 For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them.
11 Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands;
12 That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:
13 But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.
14 For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us;
So there is no longer any partition wall between you and I, and the Jews. We are all one.
If we read Paul he says God gives different gifts to different people for the edification of the church. Everyone needs a different gift to make the body whole. Just like all humans aren't given the same level of intelligence or temperaments and personalities. If every one thought alike and had the same gifts this would be one boring world.I'm not sure why you keep asking me about God being a hypocrite. Of course I do not believe that God is a hypocrite. I would appreciate it if you could stop asking me questions like that.
I agree that God loves all people and desires all men to be saved. But it does not therefore follow logically that he treats all men the same. For example, in Matthew, the master does not give each servant the same number of talents. He gives each of them a different number of talents.
I do not think there is any distinction among Jews and Gentiles insofar as it comes to the way of salvation. After the death and resurrection of our Lord, salvation for everyone is from the grace that was merited for us by the death of our Lord Jesus on the cross.
But from that it does not logically conclude that prior to our Lord's death and resurrection, God treated all groups of people the same. It also does not logically conclude that today he treats all people the same. For example, in the New Testament, St. Paul writes about how God gives different gifts of the spirit to different people. They do not all get the same gifts.
My general understanding is that God set apart Israel to be a light to all of the people of the world and to prepare the world for salvation through our Lord Jesus. That was the unique role that God had for Israel and he treated them in a different way than the rest of the world for that purpose.
I agree with you that God treats everyone with fairness and justice.If we read Paul he says God gives different gifts to different people for the edification of the church. Everyone needs a different gift to make the body whole. Just like all humans aren't given the same level of intelligence or temperaments and personalities. If every one thought alike and had the same gifts this would be one boring world.
I keep asking if you think God is a hypocrite because, to me, your ideas about God make Him a hypocrite. Peter and James say God is no respecter of persons. In other words He treats us all the same with the same level of fairness and justice. It's why Paul says there is no Jew nor Greek in Jesus.
Of course salvation is through Jesus. Where do you get the idea I think it is through law? That's what the Pharisees tauught and you've never seen me post anything positive about them.I agree with you that God treats everyone with fairness and justice.
You seem to think that God having different rules for different people is incompatible with fairness and justice, but that does not logically conclude. For example, in the parable of the workers the landowner paid one denarius to the workers who started at 9am, and paid one denarius to the worker who started at 5pm. The workers who started at 9am complained that the landowner was being unfair because they had to work 8 hours more for the same amount of money, but the landowner rebuked them. Although he treated them differently he treated both of them fairly by paying each the amount that they agreed upon.
It seems that you think that it would be unfair to apply the Mosaic Law to one group of people but not to another group of people, but why is that?
From my perspective, salvation is through Jesus Christ, not the Mosaic Law. So if God has a particular purpose for the Mosaic Law in his overall plan for the world, I do not see why it would be wrong if it applies only to a particular group of people. To me, it is similar to God giving one gift to person A and another gift to person B.
I had not concluded that was the case.Of course salvation is through Jesus. Where do you get the idea I think it is through law? That's what the Pharisees tauught and you've never seen me post anything positive about them.
The only people who believe in a works based salvation are pagans, Muslims, and Jews, but not Messianic Jews.I had not concluded that was the case.
Believe as you wish.The only people who believe in a works based salvation are pagans, Muslims, and Jews, but not Messianic Jews.
I have a hard time believing your denial as you would not make the comment on law based salvation to me because I keep the Sabbath if you didn't think that way.
Do you grant that Christ set a sinless example of how to walk in obedience to the Mosaic Law and that follows of Christ should follow his example? Why does it make sense to you to think that following Christ's example is not applicable for followers of Christ?I agree with your general methodology here.
For me, I can reconcile the texts in the NT that seem to suggest a loosening of the restrictions on the dietary laws and so forth, because I did not reach an initial interpretation of the Bible such that the Mosiac Law is applicable to Christians.
Everything in the OT teaches us how to know, love, follow, worship, believe in, and testify about the God of Israel and is revenant to those who want to learn how to do those things.To clarify your view - do you believe that everything in the OT is to be strictly applied to Christians?
The Apostles were servants of God, so they were in favor of becoming circumcised for the purposes for which God commanded it and not for the purposes for which God did not command it, for example, they were in favor of Gentiles becoming circumcised if they wanted to eat of the Passover lamb in accordance with Genesis 12:48, but God did not command circumcision for the purpose of becoming saved, so they ruled against that in Acts 15:1-11.For example, must all males be circumcised, even though many parts of the NT seem to loosen or abolish the requirement for circumcision?
Jesus is often framed as being a reformer, though the reality is that everything that he taught was rooted in the OT. The Mosaic Law requires for both the man and the women accused of adultery be brought before a judge who does a thorough investigation, for the witnesses to throw the first stone, and for no one to be put to death without at least two or three witnesses, so if Jesus was acting in accordance with what it instructs. Jesus gave himself to pay the penalty for our sins, so it would be unlawful to enforce a penalty that has already been paid.If a person is found guilty of adultery, should he be put to death as commanded by Leviticus, even though Jesus seems to change that in the New Testament?
In Deuteronomy 17:8-13, the people were to bring disputes before a priest or a judge to make a ruling that the people were obligated to obey even if they disagreed with it, and the Apostles had this authority, which I would submit to, though again it is the authority to interpret God's word, not the authority to add to or subtract from it. Countermanding God is directly negating what God has commanded, not interpreting how to correctly obey what He has commanded. For example, it is one thing to have the authority to make a ruling that turning on an electrical device violates God's command not to light a fire on the Sabbath (Exodus 35:3), but that we should not hesitate to use an AED to save someone's life on the Sabbath, while it would be countermanding God to rule that we do not need to refrain from lighting a fire on the Sabbath. In Acts 15:1-11, they had a logical debate over whether or not we are saved by circumcision and then made a ruling.At a basic level I agree with you here, too.
Let's say that we were both living during the times when the apostles were alive. Let's say that you had interpreted the Bible and concluded X, but then an apostle came along and told you Y. So, either X is correct or Y is correct. How do you determine whether your interpretation of the Bible is incorrect, or whether the apostle is countermanding God?
How do you resolve that dilemma? Do you have a logical debate until your intellect is convinced one way or another? Do you resolve that conflict using some other means?
I'm glad that you do and I agree, but I think that the majority of Christians interpret Acts 15:10 as saying that the Mosaic Law is a heavy burden, so what do you interpret that verse to be referring to? I think that Gentiles are obligated to refrain from doing what God has revealed to be sin and that it is by the Mosaic Law that we have knowledge of sin (Romans 3:20), but if delight is the correct view that we should have towards obeying the it, then do you think that a Gentile should desire to voluntarily obey it even if it were the case that Gentiles are not obligated obey it?I also have a positive view of the Mosaic Law. And I would not say that it s a heavy burden that no one can bear.
If that were the case, then it could built into the structure of the Mosaic Law, such as "Don't touch the stove until you are over 14" where the rule stays the same even as people mature, however, it does not contain that sort of structure, but rather it says things like "This is a statute forever throughout your generations" or "All of God's righteous laws are eternal". Moreover, verses like Deuteronomy 4:2 and 13:1-5 do not leave room for God's law to change as the people mature.If you have a 3 year old child, you might make a rule for the child "Do not touch the stove". If the child touches the stove under any circumstance, you will slap the child's hand, regardless of whether or not the stove is hot. You understand that the child does not have the capacity to determine when the stove is safe to touch and when it is not safe to touch, and that the child responds to pain, so you institute that sort of harsh rule for the child's own good.
When the child turns 14 years old - him being more mature, you might create a new rule for him: d"Every evening you are to use the stove to cook dinner for the family".
I think you see the point that I am trying to make with that example. Just because I changed the rule when the child turned 14 does not mean that there was anything wrong with the rule "Do not touch the stove". In fact, the rule "Do not touch the stove" was a perfect rule for the 3 year old child to whom it was intended. But as the child matured another law was more appropriate for him.
While it it is good to keep in mind the specific people that the Mosaic Law was given to, it is also good to keep in mind that it was given for the purpose of teaching the Jews how to know, love, worship, believe in, and testify about the God of Israel and that Jews were given the mission of being a light and a blessing to the nations by turning the nations from their wickedness and teaching them to obey it in accordance with the promise and the Gospel.I think the Mosaic Law is perfect as it was created by God, but I don't think we need to conclude that because God enacted the law for a specific group of people (the Jews) at a particular point in time (before the death and resurrection of our Lord), that God intended that same law as the ideal for Christians after the death and resurrection of our Lord. At least at a philosophical level, it makes sense to me that there would be a unique code for Christians because they are the recipient of unique graces that were merited by our Lord on the cross. For example, for a group of people who do not have an indwelling of the Holy Spirit, they might need a harsh rule like death for committing adultery, to drive home the gravity of the sin and to create a strong deterrent effect for committing that sin. For the person who has the indwelling of the Holy Spirit, on the other hand, the proper way to act is kind of like ingrained in his heart and the Holy Spirit prompts him to act in the proper manner, if he allows the Holy Spirit to guide him and work within him. He doesn't necessarily need to see a person stoned to death to understand the gravity of the sin and to be deterred from committing it. . .
Maturity should involve building upon the basics, not moving on from the basics so that they are not even doing that much. For example, someone does not move on to algebra by disregarding everything that they were taught about addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division.I see concepts similar to what I describe above when I read the letters of St. Paul.
I think what you wrote above is good, but I interpret Scripture a little differently than you do which causes me to view it a different way. . .
No, the real question is where is the command from God to worship Sunday for mankind, the first day. None..The context is still the people of Israel. Joining "to the Lord" means joining the people of Israel, in Isaiah.
these I will bring to my holy mountain
and give them joy in my house of prayer.
Their burnt offerings and sacrifices
will be accepted on my altar