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Where is the Evidence of a Gap in the 70 weeks of Dan 9?

Is there a "gap" in the 70 weeks of Daniel 9"


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BABerean2

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Of course it only applies to the beginning of the verse. That's the only way you can get your theory to allegedly work.

If it is my "theory", can you explain why it is found in the 1599 Geneva Bible, which is the Bible the Pilgrims brought to America?

.
 
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sparow

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There are places in Daniel where it seems to me that the verses have been shuffled like cards; but the Bible is not a legal document in the sense that you can use it to prove something; it is a tool we use and it contains information that has to be searched out; but not by interpreting single verses.

The bible is essentially a communication from God to Israel, about their covenantal business; Satan isn't really that important that He gets discussed in detail. The seventy weeks are to do with Israel or more specifically the Jews and the Messiah; the only people who read Satan into the seventy weeks are those with pre-existing ideas. Daniel is the only book in the Bible that gives a time frame for Prophesy.

Lets look at the seventieth week; a few allow Christ to have this week, albeit, but cut off in the middle of the week; most, in what seems to me to be irrational and unintelligent, throw the seventieth week down to the end of time and give the week of confirming the covenant to Satan.

What would it mean, "Christ confirmed the covenant"? Basically the covenant is a contract on paper, confirmed is to bring it to fruition.

Matthew 5:17 (NKJV)
17 "Do not think that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill.

Luke 24:44 (NKJV)
44 Then He said to them, "These are the words which I spoke to you while I was still with you, that all things must be fulfilled which were written in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms concerning Me."

Christ confirmed the BLOOD covenant by ultimately shedding His Blood. Being confirmed it cannot be abrogated; unless the abrogator is greater than God.

Because Christ was cut off in the middle of the week there is still a half week confirming to come. The OT talks about the coming of the Messiah as a single event not two. When I look at Dan 9:26 I see a source of confusion:
Daniel 9:26 (NKJV)
26 "And after the sixty-two weeks Messiah shall be cut off, but not for Himself; And the people of the prince who is to come Shall destroy the city and the sanctuary. The end of it shall be with a flood, And till the end of the war desolations are determined.


One thing to note is Chapters and verses are man's work; men have divided the scriptures this way of chapter and verse and the way the scriptures are divided can change the meaning. Following, "Messiah shall be cut off, but not for himself;", the story line changes as if, not only does a new chapter seem to begin but something seems to be missing in between. Apart from the change in flow, what is said does not worry me; I can see no reason why anyone would think this is talking about Satan or a beast.

I have heard the SDA talking about the 70 week prophesy this way; Daniel and presumably Gabriel, go back to the beginning four times and each time they come through as an overlay adding more detail each time.

The opp mentions a gap and I do not know what that refers to but I disagree with he SDA regarding the 2300 year prophesy; I expect the 2300 years is the interval between the first and second coming of Christ.
 
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A71

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Thank you, now we see it clearer. The word "confirm" is the standard translation, and of course the absolutely best one.
The destruction of Judea and Jerusalen in Daniel's 70th week confirms that Jesus is the Messiah.

Deuteronomy 18:19 And it shall come to pass, that whosoever will not hearken unto my words which he shall speak in my name, I will require it of him.

So the destruction of Israel confirms that Jesus was the anointed prophet and Messiah promised by Moses. This is very important, and one reason why playing around with the 70th week is strictly verboten and off limits.
 
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Erik Nelson

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70 AD was a spiritually momentous event. It broke the power of the Sadducees who had been persecuting Christians from the first.
 
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Erik Nelson

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you make a strong argument that the "Messianic Prince" of verse 26 is juxtaposed against an anti-Messianic anti-Prince in verse 27.

And that there is a gap, e.g. from 33 AD to 70 AD. What stopped the Daniel clock during the gap ?

EDIT -- somehow, the first 69 weeks apply to the "Messianic clock"... but the last 1 week applies to the "anti-Messianic clock" ? The transition from "rejected Messiah" to widely-followed anti-Messiah (vv. 26-27) somehow includes a gap, e.g. ~40 years from 30 AD to 70 AD ??

RE-EDIT -- the Messiah is cut off and has nothing... and the "nothing" coincides with "no more time" elapsing on the "Daniel clock"... until the anti-Messiah in the next verse comes and destroys the temple... somehow God reckoned no time elapsing from Crucifixion to destruction of the physical temple ?

does seem like you could also apply the anti-Christ prophesies to either Titus & Vespasian, or to the brutal Zealot leaders, in 70 AD.
 
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Eternally Grateful

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Huge problem

Obama already came and went, so the president who is to come could not be him,

Otherwise, you would just say “president obama shall have his people not wear MAGA caps”
 
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Eternally Grateful

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One thing to look at is context,

In all cases where jesus is mentioned, he was called either messiah the prince or messiah, of the future price or other price was also to be jesus, he also would have been called messiah the prince, or just plain messiah, as before.

You dont just change how you say things midstream, especially and angel such as Gabriel!
 
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A71

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What information do you want exactly about these passages?

In a related vein, please answer my repeated question about Daniel 9:24, or quote me if you have already replied, please

 
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Eternally Grateful

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Oh boy.

Titus destroyed jerusalem, he was the prince who God used,

5e prince who is to come is the final roman prince, who daniel later said would commit the abomination by declairing himself to be god, commiting blasphemies, he will be killed by christ himself and cast into the bottomless pit
 
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Eternally Grateful

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The time of jacobs troube is said to be so severe there is NON LIKE IT,

The time of great tribulation is said to be so sever, there will be NON LIKE IT,

Both end with messiah comming in victory to put an end to it.

both end with evil being destroyed and peace being introduced

It could not have been babylon or roman desecration of the city,
 
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Eternally Grateful

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If i may, if you look at the things of the final beast in dan 2 and daniel 7 with all of the other references to them, niether titus or vespian fit the characteristic, so i would say no, it could not be them
 
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Eternally Grateful

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What information do you want exactly about these passages?

In a related vein, please answer my repeated question about Daniel 9:24, or quote me if you have already replied, please
Lol, seriously?

I asked you three times to show me how those passages did not apply in context to daniel 9,and how they perfectly explain daniel 9 and why daniel is praying, which would explain Gabriels answer to daniels prayer.

I posted my response in the same post. Where i used those passages to explain what i thought dan 9 meant, this just goes to further show you never read what i posted in the first place,
 
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A71

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Can you please not kick up all the time EG.
One wonders if the act of aggrieved defensiveness is a cover for not having a proper answer. All the huffing and puffing, and 'oh boy-ing'. Come on man, you're a grown man!!

I read your answer but your reply to my question was skimpy to say the least. If you phrase your question clear and sharp, I will endeavour to answer, but I am moving towards cessation here


 
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Original Happy Camper

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It has everything to do with Jesus Christ

Matthew 27:50-51 King James Version (KJV)
50 Jesus, when he had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost.
51 And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent;

The veil was between the Holy and Most Holy of the temple, being rent in two the temple blood sacrafice was ceased as the blood of the Lamb of GOD replaced the CEREMONIAL SACRIFICE OF THE TEMPLE which always pointed forward to the SACRIFICE OF THE LORD JESUS CHRIST FOR THE FORGIVENESS OF SIN.

You should spend some time studying the ceremonial temple here on earth as it is a pattern of the Heavenly temple.

Leviticus 16:21
And Aaron shall lay both his hands upon the head of the live goat, and confess over him all the iniquities of the children of Israel, and all their transgressions in all their sins, putting them upon the head of the goat, and shall send him away by the hand of a fit man into the wilderness:
Exodus 25:8-10 King James Version (KJV)
8 And let them make me a sanctuary; that I may dwell among them.
9 According to all that I shew thee, after the pattern of the tabernacle, and the pattern of all the instruments thereof, even so shall ye make it.
Hebrews 8:2
A minister of the sanctuary, and of the true tabernacle, which the Lord pitched, and not man.


Your substitution of this with the anti-christ interpertation is not supported by the rest of the Bible as it is all about JESUS CHRIST
 
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Original Happy Camper

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The opp mentions a gap and I do not know what that refers to but I disagree with he SDA regarding the 2300 year prophesy; I expect the 2300 years is the interval between the first and second coming of Christ.

Please provide scripture to support your "expect" reference the 2300 days.
 
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DavidPT

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Maybe all of that is so, yet my analogy and your analogy both apparently showed that context determined this. But if not, what did? How was it that my analogy wasn't meaning the same President, but that yours was?




I see your point via the examples in Jeremiah, but I'm still thinking that if the text were meaning Jesus' people, why not use a pronoun instead? Maybe something like this?


And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and his people shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined.


Had it said that instead, there wouldn't even be a debate here. The text instead said----and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary.

The prince that shall come can be meaning the prince in verse 25, where we know it is the Messiah in verse 26, or it can be an entirely different prince altogether. The analogy I used demonstrated it could be a different one altogether. The analogy you used demonstrated it could be the same prince. But had that part used a pronoun instead, like I pointed out, nothing would be in question then. It would be undeniable that it was referring to the Messiah then, meaning Jesus. So let's at least both admit either interpretation is possible. That doesn't indicate we are agreeing with one another then. It just means we are both being intellectually honest.
 
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DavidPT

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and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary

As to this, we already know from verse 25 that there is a prince that shall come. Except this part is meaning after the prince has already come, the fact, in the same verse, that prince is cutoff. So why did the angel say that like he did, unless perhaps he was meaning the coming of a different prince altogether? And like I pointed out in my last post, if the point was that the prince in verse 25 was meant here, a pronoun would have made that perfectly clear, yet no pronoun was even used.


And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease

Let's assume this is meaning the Messiah. How did He fulfill the first half of confirming the covenant with many? Assuming meaning Him, wouldn't He have done that in person, IOW bodily present at the time? So what about the latter half? After His death and resurrection, where we know He showed back up bodily, thus bodily present at the time, did He hang around for another 3.5 years in order to finish confirming the covenant with many for the week? After all, the text says, whoever is being meant here, that that person themself confirms the covenant with many for one week. It doesn't say for part of the week though, it clearly says one week.
 
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DavidPT

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and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.

Yet all of the above is connected. Where the translators placed that first comma, the parts after that comma are referring back to the part before the comma. Nothing after that comma remotely fits with anything you submitted in this post. Maybe that perhaps indicates Jesus is not in view here then. And like I pointed out already, regardless some might disagree, all of verse 27 is fulfilled during the 70th week, so that includes the parts before and after that first comma in the passage above. The parts after that first comma don't fit with anything having to do with Christ's death and resurrection at the time, therefore someone else must be meant here then.

Also, no one is disputing anything you submitted in this post except for your first sentence----"It has everything to do with Jesus Christ".
 
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Eternally Grateful

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Same could be said about your continued refusal to answer, but thats beside the point,

Here is our conversations.

Ok, but you haven't really answered my earlier questions. Here is an easier one. Can you, please, Explain how you understand Daniel 9, in its entirety. Thanks

My reply

1st, I established th context of daniel 9


With this, you should have seen the answer to your question was completely answered, it was not as you called it “skimpy” and yet you wonder why i respond the way i do.

The fact is, as i asked, can you show me..

1. How did i get it wrong if i am wrong
2. Where is the church mentioned or infered in the context of daniel 9 based on these truths. Which you have yet to even show me i was wrong to begin with
3. If the church is not in context, then the answer to gabriels prophesy does not concern the church, ie, the end of rebellion of sin of propeshy and all,, are in refference to Isreal, and not the church. And to properly interpret what they mean would force us to see how they relate to isreal, and all of her peophesies as well.

Now can you respond or not?
 
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