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That's some real creepy stuff.
This is real simple, but this is something that I am sure that you have not considered it yet. I will explain....I would like someone to please show me where a rapture is mentioned in Revelation since the only thing I see mentioned in Revelation are resurrections.
Where does it say there's a rapture if the 2nd advent, as described in the Olivet discourse, is the 2nd resurrection, where that generation, and those standing there at the time of the Olivet discourse, taste death after witnessing Christ coming into his kingdom, which is the New Yah-ru-Shalem?
If the Olivet discourse advent which is the gathering of the elect and the so-called 2nd return of Christ is the 2nd resurrection, when Christ supposedly returns to earth, how does anyone justify a rapture at the "1st resurrection" if there's no advent, no return of Christ to earth until the 2nd resurrection?
Food for thought
Update: I was thinking the rapture involved the return of Christ, which it doesn't, but I do think the only verse that supports a rapture is taken out of context, that the reference to one being taken and another one left is used in the same context as the OT besieging of the old city, in the context of two being in the field and one being taken/slain and the other escaping with his life, since the context of the NT verse is during the NT siege.
This shows you up for your supercilious and arrogant attitude.We? ..... maybe you, but not we
Have a ball in the tribulation
Well said except the book of life isn't opened until the 2nd resurrection.
You need to wake up. You can't be guessing and putting things together that don't go together. God telling John to "come up hither" has nothing to do with a rapture! Get real, man.This is real simple, but this is something that I am sure that you have not considered it yet. I will explain....
Take a look at the first three chapters of Revelation. Those are messages to the churches. I am sure that you will agree.
Now look at Revelation 1:10-11. John was in the spirit, he heard a voice as of a trumpet. In verse 11, we know that it was Jesus speaking....
10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet,
11 Saying, I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last: and, What thou seest, write in a book, and send it unto the seven churches which are in Asia; unto Ephesus, and unto Smyrna, and unto Pergamos, and unto Thyatira, and unto Sardis, and unto Philadelphia, and unto Laodicea.
.....so Jesus delivers the message to the church, one of which is the church of Philadelphia, - you know the rest.
Now after Jesus has spoken to the churches, in Revelation 4:1-2, we read, John, in similitude to what it says in 3:10 above - except for the "come up hither" in 4:1. Compare 3:10 to 4:1. So in 4:1, Jesus is saying "come up hither".
You need help. God telling John to "come up hither" has nothing to do with the rapture. There's no logical connection other than God telling John to "come up hither." You would be laughed out of court for such a faulty conclusion.The "come up hither" represents the rapture.
I looked up the verses on one being taken and another one left and both books, Matthew and Luke, carbon copies of each other, both equate this taken away with Christ return, and Christ returns only at the 2nd resurrection when "those standing there" and "that generation" tastes death, the real death, the lake of fire death which occurs only at the 2nd resurrection. Your myth has been debunked.There is no actual trumpet instrument being blown, just as there is no actual trumpet instrument being blown in 1thessalonians4:16. So we can disregard any last trumpet arguments being made for the rapture.
Not as weird as me being stalked by the Feds for exposing the truth.lol!
I swear , its "synchronicity", man. Its a thing and its real and its spiritual! God puts something in our mind, and weird things happens around us. I had so many experinces with this the last few years, i written about it several other places.
You deceived me early. I looked up the verses on one being taken and another one being left behind, and the phrase is found only in Luke and Matthew, carbon copies of each other, almost word for word the entire books, and both books reference the taking away to be at the time of the return of Christ, meaning I was correct in my opening post when I said there is no rapture because Christ does not return until the 2nd resurrection, the 2nd resurrection being the fulfillment of those standing there, that generation tasting death, after witnessing Christ coming into His kingdom, the new Yah-ru-Shalem, because the lake of fire is the 2nd death, the death Christ was referring to when he said they wouldn't taste death until His return, the reason why everyone thought He would return in that generation.Those seen in heaven in Revelation 7:9-17 are the Lord's pre-tribulation ecclesia
- My comment
These have come "away" from the tribulation .... the Greek "EK" can mean "away from" as "out of"
Even then when one is not "in" a condition, he is out of it
These same people are seen many times during the tribulation [Revelation 4:4; 5:1-10; 7:9-17; 11:1; 12:12; 13:6; 17:14; 19:1-9; 19:14; 20:4 [those already on thrones]]
The only resurrections that will take place at the end of the days of the tribulation are the martyrs who become believers during the period and the Lord's two prophets [Revelation 6:9-11; 11:7-12]
The gatherings of the mortal survivors after the tribulation are not resurrections
Israel [Matthew 24:29-31]
The nations of the Gentiles [Matthew 25:31-46]
Those found believing will enter and populate the Lord's millennial kingdom upon the earth .... those found in unbelief will be rejected
And Last 7 is correct about Revelation's structure .... the prose is layered and repeating ass the narrative moves forward
IF you do not get this truth you will never understand the Lord's prophetic word
I am really surprised by your reaction. It is Jesus saying to John "come up hither" because the voice was as the sound of a trumpet - which from Revelation 1:10-11, for certainty is Jesus's voice.You need to wake up. You can't be guessing and putting things together that don't go together. God telling John to "come up hither" has nothing to do with a rapture! Get real, man.
You need help. God telling John to "come up hither" has nothing to do with the rapture. There's no logical connection other than God telling John to "come up hither." You would be laughed out of court for such a faulty conclusion.
I looked up the verses on one being taken and another one left and both books, Matthew and Luke, carbon copies of each other, both equate this taken away with Christ return, and Christ returns only at the 2nd resurrection when "those standing there" and "that generation" tastes death, the real death, the lake of fire death which occurs only at the 2nd resurrection. Your myth has been debunked.
precepts, you need to go back and edit your post and add verse references. Explain what you mean by "2nd resurrection".I would like someone to please show me where a rapture is mentioned in Revelation since the only thing I see mentioned in Revelation are resurrections.
Where does it say there's a rapture if the 2nd advent, as described in the Olivet discourse [add verses reference], is the 2nd resurrection [add verses reference], where that generation [add verses reference], and those standing there at the time of the Olivet discourse, taste death after witnessing Christ coming into his kingdom [add verse reference], which is the New Yah-ru-Shalem?
If the Olivet discourse advent which is the gathering of the elect and the so-called 2nd return of Christ is the 2nd resurrection, when Christ supposedly returns to earth, how does anyone justify a rapture at the "1st resurrection" if there's no advent, no return of Christ to earth until the 2nd resurrection?
Food for thought
A falling away has definitely begun.
I would like someone to please show me where a rapture is mentioned in Revelation since the only thing I see mentioned in Revelation are resurrections.
...
Do you have a reference for this?I'm beginning to thing it's speaking about the same situation from the old testament when Israel was besieged by Nebuchadnezzar, in the context of two being in the field and one being taken/slain and other escaping with his life.
You're talking about an inference, not an actual reference.If one is open to thinking, and comparing scripture with scripture, then I would suggest looking at the 2nd half of Rev. 7.
That was yesterday's message, last night I did a BLB search and discovered the only reference to "one taken and one left behind" is in Matthew's and Luke's gospel. Both prove the rapture happens at the 2nd advent, hence my original argument was correct. There is no rapture because the 2nd advent is the 2nd resurrection, when some witnesses taste death in the lake of fire. And the 1st resurrection is exactly what it is, a resurrection of all the righteous dead from creation to the time of the 1st resurrection, all resurrected in heaven.Do you have a reference for this?
So where are the resurrected then?If one is open to thinking, and comparing scripture with scripture, then I would suggest looking at the 2nd half of Rev. 7.
The Rapture debunked!
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