David Kent
Continuing Historicist
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Rev 20:4-6 mentions a "first resurrection" of Christian martyrs who were beheaded.The death f Antipas has no bearing on the date of revelation it was long before Revelation was written
Scoffers always say that books of the bible were written long after they were because they don't believe in prophecy. The NT apart from Revelation was all written before AD70. That is how they get 2, 3 or 4 diferent Isaiahs, and Daniel written about 160BC.
- Rev 2:13 I know thy works, and where thou dwellest, even where Satan’s seat is: and thou holdest fast my name, and hast not denied my faith, even in those days wherein Antipas was my faithful martyr, who was slain among you, where Satan dwelleth.
Doing a google search on "dating of Revelation christian forums", here are a list of threads:Please state whether you believe Revelation was written either post 70 AD or Pre 70 AD.
Additionally, please provide evidence to support your belief.
This seems best so far. There's a lot of 'tradition' otherwise, but tradition is often wrong, and I think it is wrong in this case also - "on purpose" (hidden and known reasons).Rev 20:4-6 mentions a "first resurrection" of Christian martyrs who were beheaded.
Not crucified, as most of the Apostles, but beheaded, reserved only for Roman citizens like St. Paul.
So, Rev 20:4-6 appears to reassure the Churches of Asia Minor, founded by St. Paul, that their beloved "spiritual father" St. Paul would get his special reward in the then-Biblically-soon-to-come Millennium
Ergo, Rev 20:4-6 was (plausibly) written very soon after St. Paul was beheaded in Rome, about the same time as St. Peter was crucified upside down, and (say some) St. John was miraculously saved from execution by a Daniel-like miracle... and so exiled to Patmos instead... where he received the visions of Revelation
If so, Rev was written after about 65-67 AD (when Nero tried to execute all of the surviving "pillars" of the Church) and before 70 AD (when the physical Temple of Herod was raised)
EDIT -- the licentious image of the "Babylon the harlot" "riding the Beast" may reflect the Biblically-adulterous marriage of Poppaea Sabina (whose first husband was then still living) and emperor Nero...
they were married through 65 AD, for a year after the Great Fire of Rome ("the mortal wound healed"), but Nero unexpectedly turned on Sabina and kicked her (and her unborn son) to death ("the beast will turn on her and tear her to pieces")
early 65 AD would be about when John was residing on Patmos, after having miraculously survived the spree of executions which claimed the lives of St. Peter & St. Paul, in the aftermath of the Great Fire, which emperor Nero and empress Sabina blamed on the Christians
I am sorry to agree with you for once, but I agree with you this time.Almost all historians who are not prejudiced by Preterism conclude that the Revelation was given near the end of the reign of Domitian. Most of these assign it a date between 92 and 94 AD. This is because all conclusively stated Christian records that can even rationally be considered rational contain details that tie it to the latter part of Domitian’s reign. And of these seven authorities, four gave details that were included in no other account, thus revealing a minimum of four independent ultimate sources of information.
As the average historical date is based on no more than two ancient sources, this is considered nearly absolutely established.
Except of course, and as I already stated on this thread. The book of Revelation says when John received the vision and he was told to write.Almost all historians who are not prejudiced by Preterism conclude that the Revelation was given near the end of the reign of Domitian. Most of these assign it a date between 92 and 94 AD. This is because all conclusively stated Christian records that can even rationally be considered rational contain details that tie it to the latter part of Domitian’s reign. And of these seven authorities, four gave details that were included in no other account, thus revealing a minimum of four independent ultimate sources of information.
As the average historical date is based on no more than two ancient sources, this is considered nearly absolutely established.
Revelation is not worldwide..............I would tend to fall into the futurist category, not because of some date before or after the destruction of the temple though. The type of destruction worldwide that Revelations refers to I don't see any evidence of happening in the past. Certainly death and hades are not in the lake of fire. Nor have we seen the type of death and destruction mentioned in Revelations before. Not to mention we haven't seen the two witnesses or many other specific events
not "prejudiced by Preterism" doesn't mean "not prejudiced [against Preterism]"Almost all historians who are not prejudiced by Preterism conclude that the Revelation was given near the end of the reign of Domitian. Most of these assign it a date between 92 and 94 AD. This is because all conclusively stated Christian records that can even rationally be considered rational contain details that tie it to the latter part of Domitian’s reign. And of these seven authorities, four gave details that were included in no other account, thus revealing a minimum of four independent ultimate sources of information.
As the average historical date is based on no more than two ancient sources, this is considered nearly absolutely established.
This would be true ONLY if your interpretation of its meaning were correct. But as that interpretation is incorrect, your observation is erroneous.Except of course, and as I already stated on this thread. The book of Revelation says when John received the vision and he was told to write.
Revelation 17: 9 And here [is] the mind which hath wisdom. The seven heads are seven mountains, on which the woman sitteth. 10 And there are seven kings: five are fallen, and one is, [and] the other is not yet come; and when he cometh, he must continue a short space. 11 And the beast that was, and is not, even he is the eighth, and is of the seven, and goeth into perdition.
Makes it during the reign of Nero. I have trouble believing he waited forty years to obey the order to write what he sees. I have always felt like my intelligence was being insulted by all these "scholars" who ascribe all these late dates to the NT based on nothing more than their feelings on the matter. AS IF the NT's own testimony of its own authors is not the primary evidence for the dates the letters and Gospels were written.
Other scriptures explicitly tell us the temple will be rebuilt, even as they explicitly said the city would again be populated.not "prejudiced by Preterism" doesn't mean "not prejudiced [against Preterism]"
Rev 11 describes the Temple as still standing -- how can Rev be an accurate prophesy but be completely oblivious to the desolation of Jerusalem in 70 AD
God in heaven overlooked that minor detail? The desolation of the City of David in 70 AD didn't make it anywhere into Scripture??
If so, wouldn't many rightfully say that there is major glaring gap & omission & overlooking in the NT ?
Daniel 2's end time prophecy states there will be 4 empires followed by God's kingdom filling the earth. It names the 1st empire as Nebuchadnezzar's Babylon. Daniel 7 repeats this prophecy with different illustrations and added details. Daniel 8 does the same thing and names the 2nd and 3rd empires for us. Not need for any "interpretations." It is interpreted for us in the scripture. Daniel 11 does the same thing. Tells us who the 2nd and 3rd empires are and goes into great detail about the wars between the Greek kings of of that 3rd empire. IE the wars between the Greek kings of Syria and Egypt with poor Israel stuck in between. Then in Daniel 11:36 it makes mention of Herod the Great then starting in Daniel 11:40 Octavian, the first emperor of the 4th empires conquering of Egypt, the last section of the Greek Empire. So We have our four empires named in Scripture.This would be true ONLY if your interpretation of its meaning were correct. But as that interpretation is incorrect, your observation is erroneous.
It is pure imagination that Daniel 11:36 speaks of "Herod the Great." Every statement of Daniel 11:1-35a was literally fulfilled, down to the tiniest detail, without a single exception.Daniel 2's end time prophecy states there will be 4 empires followed by God's kingdom filling the earth. It names the 1st empire as Nebuchadnezzar's Babylon. Daniel 7 repeats this prophecy with different illustrations and added details. Daniel 8 does the same thing and names the 2nd and 3rd empires for us. Not need for any "interpretations." It is interpreted for us in the scripture. Daniel 11 does the same thing. Tells us who the 2nd and 3rd empires are and goes into great detail about the wars between the Greek kings of of that 3rd empire. IE the wars between the Greek kings of Syria and Egypt with poor Israel stuck in between. Then in Daniel 11:36 it makes mention of Herod the Great then starting in Daniel 11:40 Octavian, the first emperor of the 4th empires conquering of Egypt, the last section of the Greek Empire. So We have our four empires named in Scripture.
Revelation uses the the same illustrations as one of Daniels prophecies about these 4 empires and clearly states that John is receiving his vision during the reign of the 6th emperor of that fourth empire. Revelation is expanding on Daniels visions. There is no debate over this. There is only knowledge and ignorance. John received his vision right at the start of the war in Judea and was told to write it down.
End Time Prophecy
Not Herod?It is pure imagination that Daniel 11:36 speaks of "Herod the Great." Every statement of Daniel 11:1-35a was literally fulfilled, down to the tiniest detail, without a single exception.
But from the the words "even to the time of the end" at the end of verse 35, the "fulfillments" claimed by Preterists and Historicists after this time are of an entirely different character. In EACH case, the alleged "fulfillment" was nothing but an event of history that had a slight resemblance to a very small part of what the prophecy said.
A prophecy has not been fulfilled until every detail of what it says has been fulfilled. And this is why, with the sole exception of Clement of Alexandria, the Christians who wrote on these things within the time when they would have know the actual details of what transpired, ALL concluded that the end time prophecies of Daniel remained to be fulfilled in the future. Why did they conclude this? because they KNEW that the events that had just recently taken place did not even resemble what had peen prophesied in the book of Daniel.
38. But in his estate shall he honour the God of forces: and a god whom his fathers knew not shall he honour with gold, and silver, and with precious stones, and pleasant things.It is pure imagination that Daniel 11:36 speaks of "Herod the Great." Every statement of Daniel 11:1-35a was literally fulfilled, down to the tiniest detail, without a single exception.
But from the the words "even to the time of the end" at the end of verse 35, the "fulfillments" claimed by Preterists and Historicists after this time are of an entirely different character. In EACH case, the alleged "fulfillment" was nothing but an event of history that had a slight resemblance to a very small part of what the prophecy said.
A prophecy has not been fulfilled until every detail of what it says has been fulfilled. And this is why, with the sole exception of Clement of Alexandria, the Christians who wrote on these things within the time when they would have know the actual details of what transpired, ALL concluded that the end time prophecies of Daniel remained to be fulfilled in the future. Why did they conclude this? because they KNEW that the events that had just recently taken place did not even resemble what had peen prophesied in the book of Daniel.
Daniel 11:40-45 is a prophecy of Rome conquering the last section of the Greek empire. The Egyptian one.Yes, with a little imagination, you can apply Daniel 11:36-39 to Herod the Great. But there is zero way to even pretend that this historical figure, or any other, fululfilled Daniel 11:40-45.
2. And many of them that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame and everlasting contempt.Yes, with a little imagination, you can apply Daniel 11:36-39 to Herod the Great. But there is zero way to even pretend that this historical figure, or any other, fululfilled Daniel 11:40-45.