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When does NO mean No?

Is it rape if

  • No means no, he should stop

  • yes it's wrong, but not illegal

  • depends on her reason for asking him to stop

  • You can't stop a freight train once it's started


Results are only viewable after voting.

Spinrad

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levi501 said:
Well hypothetically lets says both participants are extremely honest and the guy says before a jury, "yes she told me to stop, but I pulled out after making one extra motion because it felt so good. It probably took 4 seconds total."

In this scenario should he be convicted of rape and sent to jail?


I'm pressing this point, because this whole "no means no" mantra is nauseatingly self-evident. Everyone knows rape is bad. But think of situations where consent is blurred and it isn't obvious. For instance, two people rolling around naked and the guy puts himself inside a woman and she realizes after a matter of seconds whats going on and tells him to stop and he immediately does. The woman in this situation might feel violated or even raped, but was she? Or how about a guy deceiving a woman into sex... or how about a woman under the influence of some chemical substance? To what degree can a lie or chemical alter some ones judgement and make them do something they wouldn't do and how much responsibility does each partner have?

Yes, he would be guilty. Tough, huh?

As to the rest, it is a matter of when consent can and has been given and rescinded. If you can establish that then all other points become moot. To alter her through chmeicals is already assault, I believe, so anything that happens after that is rape. It's really not rocket science.
 
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levi501

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Spinrad said:
Yes, he would be guilty. Tough, huh?
Yah very harsh actually. So do you think you're protecting society by locking this individual up?


Spinrad said:
As to the rest, it is a matter of when consent can and has been given and rescinded. If you can establish that then all other points become moot. To alter her through chmeicals is already assault, I believe, so anything that happens after that is rape. It's really not rocket science.
Not rocket science, but the devil is in the details.
You want to gloss over it and suggest it's always easy to determine.
I think i've given you situations where it's not so obvious.
 
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BrownCoat

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I'm pressing this point, because this whole "no means no" mantra is nauseatingly self-evident. Everyone knows rape is bad. But think of situations where consent is blurred and it isn't obvious. For instance, two people rolling around naked and the guy puts himself inside a woman and she realizes after a matter of seconds whats going on and tells him to stop and he immediately does. The woman in this situation might feel violated or even raped, but was she? Or how about a guy deceiving a woman into sex... or how about a woman under the influence of some chemical substance? To what degree can a lie or chemical alter some ones judgement and make them do something they wouldn't do and how much responsibility does each partner have?

Roofies are bad mkay?
 
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Maxwell511

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MERCY@GRACE said:
This poll was asked on another board and it went something like this!

If a man and woman are about 5minutes into having sex, and the woman tells the man to stop, is it considered rape?

The choices were something like:

He should stop, no means no!

Morally it's wrong but don't think it is illegal

DEpends on her reason for telling him to stop

You can't stop a freight train once it's started.

The answers were vastly different between men and women. So what do you think and why? I will share my thoughts later!

The last time I checked the dictionary no does mean no.
 
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meebs

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Spinrad said:
Now, for my part as the man, if I was forced to pull away in mid...progress... the woman would be keeping her liberty and the sanctity of her person. But she sould not be near me again. Good bye, good luck, stay away.

what if she wanted to stop cos it was painful for some reason, but that could be fixed in time. would it still offend you then? :scratch:
 
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justcallmejamie

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i think there is a difference between a erotic no means yes thing and an outright yell...i think that a woman can get her self understood if she wants. Now if she is too scared of yelling no and just lets her self get raped...its still rape whether she says no or not.
 
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Yusuf Evans

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Spinrad said:
Now, for my part as the man, if I was forced to pull away in mid...progress... the woman would be keeping her liberty and the sanctity of her person. But she sould not be near me again. Good bye, good luck, stay away.


:thumbsup: That is a definite. If she feels she made a mistake in the first place, that's fine w/me. No way I would try to go round two with her again. Gotta play it safe at all times.
 
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Sycophant

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Practically speaking, once she says no she's not going to be a willing partcipant physically, and being a slightly complicated physical coupling, it requires both partners be on board. So, to continue he is either going to have to physically force her to continue (pin her down) or use some implied or implicit threat to keep make her continue. At that point it really becomes a different thing.

In my case however, she'd have a pretty small window of opportunity to change her mind once we got to that point ;)
 
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mark53

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Rape is rape. No is No. I am married and I have to respect my wife at ALL times. Sometimes I struggle. I have an urge, BUT, No means no!

I think tooooo many TV shows, films, books, etc, etc, etc .... show the image of a macho man conquering a woman. For a starters James Bond type. The image of a male getting what he wants when he wants needs to change. It is even in the Bible, particularly the O.T. when a male would "take" or "uncover the nakedness of" or "Know" a woman. He made the decision and she had no choice. That is what happened and it is and should have been then, not right.
 
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MERCY@GRACE

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My poll question is a hypothetical question, but it is not really a 'hypothetical' scenario! The only difference is we don't have all the extenuationg circumstances. This happens all the time, and I think we'd do good to talk about issues such as this amongst men and women when it comes to the subject of rape. In this other thread a man mentioned how his gf used to say stop all the time, and other distracting things. When he stopped, she would ask why did you stop. Women cannot send mixed messages like this and call it rape.

I remember seeing a movie a long time ago. The 'dating' couple were in a college dorm...they started to get frisky, and eventually he got ontop and did his thing. She realized he wasn't wearing a condom and told him to stop, he kept telling her to be quiet....then she started hitting him and screaming, but he continued. That in my book is rape, but then others would disagree bc they could say...well she had the 'intent' of sleeping w/ him.

I myself don't believe in premarital sex, but that is me... I realize there are a bunch of non christians and liberal christians that post on this forum, so I don't want this to veer off to premarital sex debate.....but i think w/ it becomes a whole set of problems.

What about the,"No, Don't stop" "stop, no, don't stop". I think many men are guilty of rape, but I also believe many women are guilty of sending mixed signals also. Most men can't think straight when they are in the middle of the act anyway:p
 
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Eudaimonist

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MERCY@GRACE said:
You can't stop a freight train once it's started.

Honestly, I am fully capable of stopping my freight train even after it has entered the tunnel.

I don't think it is unreasonable to expect a man to stop, no matter how far along things are.
 
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Spinrad

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jellybean said:
what if she wanted to stop cos it was painful for some reason, but that could be fixed in time. would it still offend you then? :scratch:

She would certainly have a lot of explaining to do. She is trading her pain for mine. Anyone can negotiate based on physical necessity, obviously, but if it was simply a case of changing her mind I would consider her juvenile and selfish. Let her find someone more her speed.
 
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chipmunk

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justcallmejamie said:
i think there is a difference between a erotic no means yes thing and an outright yell...i think that a woman can get her self understood if she wants. Now if she is too scared of yelling no and just lets her self get raped...its still rape whether she says no or not.

I agree a woman can make her wishes known if she wants.

However, the second point? If she already consented to have sex gets scared in the middle and can't say no, then it's not rape. It's clearly a misunderstanding, but you can't charge a man with rape when the girl didn't even express her desire to quit after she'd already agreed to start. Men aren't psychic. If you want to stop before it's finished you have to vocalize that.
 
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Ledifni

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MERCY@GRACE said:
This poll was asked on another board and it went something like this!

If a man and woman are about 5minutes into having sex, and the woman tells the man to stop, is it considered rape?

The choices were something like:

He should stop, no means no!

Morally it's wrong but don't think it is illegal

DEpends on her reason for telling him to stop

You can't stop a freight train once it's started.

The answers were vastly different between men and women. So what do you think and why? I will share my thoughts later!

He should certainly stop -- no means no. But I have to question her wisdom to wait until they're five minutes into it. Couldn't she have figured out she didn't want it before they made the beast?
 
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Ledifni

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Spinrad said:
Now, for my part as the man, if I was forced to pull away in mid...progress... the woman would be keeping her liberty and the sanctity of her person. But she sould not be near me again. Good bye, good luck, stay away.

Yes, that's about how I'd see it. There is no excuse for rape; however, there are levels of basic decency that a woman I'd want to be involved with would have to observe, one of them being that if you don't want it, tell me that before we actually start doing the deed.

There are, of course, exceptions -- for example, another poster mentioned that intercourse can be painful for a woman under certain circumstances, and that's certainly a valid reason. However, I get the impression we're actually talking about a woman who starts having sex and then suddenly decides she isn't in the mood.
 
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Ledifni

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MERCY@GRACE said:
O.k, since most of us are on the same page, and I noticed that the two that voted different haven't replied (it's anon so i can't see anyway) I will play devils advocate.

So we've acknowleged that he is wrong, wrong, wrong, for not stopping..but should he be jailed? Should he be lumped in w/ other 'predators' if this was his first time? Is there an understanding of sorts that it's not easy for a man to stop, once he gets to a certain point? What if he gets caught up in the moment,and doesn't realize what he did till after the fact? Does this person stand any chance of not being labeled a rapist for the rest of his life?

Yes, I certainly understand that it's difficult and extremely upsetting to stop after you've reached a certain point. HOWEVER, it's a hundred thousand times more difficult and upsetting to go through rape. It's my position that before a man has sex, he should be prepared to deny his instincts at any point, NO MATTER WHAT. It isn't right to put somebody else in a position of such vulnerability if you're not prepared to respect their person at all costs.
 
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Spinrad

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Ledifni said:
Yes, that's about how I'd see it. There is no excuse for rape; however, there are levels of basic decency that a woman I'd want to be involved with would have to observe, one of them being that if you don't want it, tell me that before we actually start doing the deed.

There are, of course, exceptions -- for example, another poster mentioned that intercourse can be painful for a woman under certain circumstances, and that's certainly a valid reason. However, I get the impression we're actually talking about a woman who starts having sex and then suddenly decides she isn't in the mood.

Perhaps. Can someone tell me about a condition a woman can suffer from where the only way she could know that she was suffering from it was after penetration has happened and intercourse has officially begun? My wife has had the occasional bladder or yeast infection and she was pretty aware that intercourse was going to be a no no. WHen she was younger she may not have realised that it would hurt until after penetration, but I don't remember that happening.

A woman with any character would, if this all were the case, have alternative methods of release up her sleeve in any case. I know if the suituation were reversed I would step up to the plate. Call it sexual courtesy.
 
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Ledifni

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levi501 said:
Well hypothetically lets says both participants are extremely honest and the guy says before a jury, "yes she told me to stop, but I pulled out after making one extra motion because it felt so good. It probably took 4 seconds total."

In this scenario should he be convicted of rape and sent to jail?

Nobody is going to feel like that guy ought to be convicted of rape (though I wouldn't admire him for what he did). But here's the problem, levi -- where are you going to draw the line?

Right now, the line is drawn, legally, at any continued penetration after withdrawal of consent. This works, because although a man is at least going to stay in for the length of his reaction time, a very short continuation of sex will be easy to slide past in a court of law. A longer continuation, not so easy -- and the man is likely to be convicted. You aren't expected to admit to rape because of 1 or 2 seconds, because that could just as easily be reaction time as anything else. If you admit to rape anyway, then you have a seriously misplaced sense of duty, I think. Also, consider whether a jury would convict in your scenario -- personally, I doubt they would, though he'd probably get a lesser charge.

But say we do what you're saying and change the line to 4 seconds. If you remain inside for more than 4 seconds, you're a rapist -- so what about the guy who keeps going for 5 seconds? Is he a rapist? He only pushed the envelope by 1 second, so come on, how is it fair to convict him? Besides, the woman is going to have a lot harder time proving he went over 4 seconds, than simply proving he didn't immediately stop, so he'll probably get off anyway. So that's why we don't raise the allowable time to keep screwing after she says "No."

This is how the justice system works. We make black-and-white rules because we simply can't make laws on a case-by-case basis. Then, we expect the natural elasticity of the justice system to give some leeway, so that in extraordinary cases, the defendant will have a chance to avoid conviction based on the specific circumstances. Have you ever wondered why we have juries instead of putting the evidence into a computer and clicking "Judge?" It's so the jury can hear all the evidence and make a reasonable conclusion based on the circumstances. Juries allow our justice system to account for "grey areas."

In general, a person who just barely commits a crime won't appear guilty, and you could challenge any law on that basis. For example, if you kill somebody while driving drunk, you get convicted of manslaughter. If you injure a person while driving drunk, you get convicted of attempted manslaughter. So think about the following scenario:

A man who never, ever drives drunk -- in fact, he only drinks at home when he knows he won't be going out -- is sitting at home drinking. He looks out the window and notices that it's starting to hail, so he decides to drive his car up the driveway and under an awning in front of his house.

Unbeknownst to him, there's a guy trying to pry open the basement window and break into his house, and when he drives up the driveway, the man's feet are sticking out and he runs over his little toe. When the thief screams, this wicked DUI calls the police. They show up, find beer bottles on his porch, and make him use the breathalyzer. Since his BAC is barely .08%, they haul him in and charge him with attempted manslaughter. He is convicted and serves two years.

Fair, or unfair? Do you think that on that basis we should change the minimum BAC for intoxication to, say, .1%?
 
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