Christ didn't enter both simultaneously. Holy Places is simply another way of saying the part of the sanctuary that contains the Holy and Most holy place.
That doesn't mean Jesus didn't enter the Most Holy Place. Keep in mind that the Day of Atonement was a process. And I believe that is why it is translated as "holy places" in Hebrews 9:12 of Young's Literal Translation, that is, to show that Jesus went through the process of making atonement for us.
The High Priest entered the Most Holy Place in order to make atonement for the people. Jesus had to do the same in order to purge us of our sins. The writer of Hebrews makes this clear by contrasting the difference between the work of the priests and the High Priest, and by acknowledging Jesus as our High Priest. See Hebrews 7:22-28; 9:6-7, 24-28.
Can you provide biblical proof to show that Jesus didn't enter the Most Holy Place? If not, how can you be sure He didn't?
Stryder06 said:Purging our sins does not involve going into the MHP.
You need to read Leviticus 16 again. The concept of purging us from our sins, as it pertains to the work of the High Priest, is the same as making atonement for us. The High Priest had to enter the Most Holy Place in order to do that work. And Jesus, as our High Priest, did that for us!
"Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high; Being made so much better than the angels, as he hath by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they" (Hebrews 1:3-4 KJV).
Note: "purged" is past tense.
Stryder06 said:And as stated before, the throne of God is not static
Please provide biblical proof that God's throne moved to the holy place. If you can't do that, then you can't use this argument as proof that Jesus didn't enter the Most Holy Place.
The goal here is to come to an agreement on what the Bible says, not to use theories that are not clearly supported by the Bible to try to justify what we believe.
Stryder06 said:aside from that, the term "sat down at the right hand..." is an expression used to show ones Authority. Stating that Christ is seated at the right hand of God is showing that Christ has ultimate Authority. I don't think you can believe that Christ has literally just been sitting for the past 2k years.
Can you prove Jesus isn't literally seated next to the Father in heaven? I can provide proof to show that He was next to the Father in heaven prior to 1844, except that He was standing at the time: "But being full of the Holy Spirit, he gazed intently into heaven and saw the glory of God, and Jesus standing at the right hand of God; and he said, "Behold, I see the heavens opened up and the Son of Man standing at the right hand of God" (Acts 7:55-56 NASB).
And why can't it mean both, that is, that Jesus is not only literally seated next to the Father in heaven, but also has ultimate authority?
By the way, I never believed that Jesus has been seated for two thousand years, nor does such an assertion constitute a necessary condition to believe that He entered the Most Holy Place prior to 1844.
Stryder06 said:Good question. I believe it was because it was there that the presence of God was manifested. If you're going where I think you are, than you're headed into the trap that I advised against earlier. The earthly temple and it's services were not a mirror of what was going on in heaven. If you're going to say that God's throne couldn't have been situated, for a time, in the Holy Place, is to limit God.
If you truly believe what you just said here, then you shouldn't be so firm about denying that Jesus entered the Most Holy Place prior to 1844.
Keep in mind that the Bible doesn't show that the Father went to Jesus in order to make atonement for the people, but that Jesus went to the Father to make atonement "for us". So the idea of the Father moving to the Holy Place doesn't stand to reason with what is written in Hebrews.
Moreover, since you agree that the presence of God made the Most Holy Place the holiest of all, then it should not be hard for you to agree that Jesus entered the Most Holy Place in heaven, for the Bible clearly states that He entered the presence of God for us: "For Christ did not enter a holy place made with hands, a mere copy of the true one, but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us" (Hebrews 9:24 NASB)
The keywords here are: "enter," "presence of God," and "for us." These words indicate that as our High Priest, Jesus entered the Most Holy Place (where the presence of God is) to make atonement for us.
Having said that, please take a close look at these passages:
"Having therefore, brethren, boldness to enter into the holiest by the blood of Jesus, By a new and living way, which he hath consecrated for us, through the veil, that is to say, his flesh; And having an high priest over the house of God; Let us draw near with a true heart in full assurance of faith, having our hearts sprinkled from an evil conscience, and our bodies washed with pure water" (Hebrews 10:19-22 KJV)
"Which hope we have as an anchor of the soul, both sure and stedfast, and which entereth into that within the veil; Whither the forerunner is for us entered, even Jesus, made an high priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec" (Hebrews 6:19-20 KJV)
Note: "Whither the forerunner is for us entered, even Jesus" is better translated as, "where Jesus has entered as a forerunner for us" (NASB)
The bolded words in the passages above appear to indicate that Jesus entered the Most Holy Place prior to 1844.
Again, I see more evidence from the Bible to support the idea that Jesus entered the Most Holy Place prior to 1844 than I see evidence to prove He didn't.
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